ECCouncil 212-89 (EC-Council Certified Incident Handler) Practice Test 107

Question 1060

During lessons learned, the security owner reviews this completed incident: An administrator covertly configures an automated nightly job to copy audit archives to personal cloud storage. Which repeatable safeguard best prevents this failure mode in the future?

  1. Apply behavior analytics with peer-role context and approved workload baselines
  2. Revoke credentials used by the job and assess historical archive exposure
  3. Monitor new data-export jobs and restrict destinations for archive storage
  4. Inspect scheduler configuration, identity grants and cloud upload records

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Job governance reduces stealthy recurring copies; the assurance measure is designed around whether scheduled automation is an insider persistence route, rather than hiding the reported activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Context is necessary to detect abuse without constant false alarms; the relevant condition for that step is whether unusual legitimate tooling masks insider exfiltration, which is not shown for whether scheduled automation is an insider persistence route.

B:

Eradication must remove both automation and its access method; the goal is recurrence prevention for whether scheduled automation is an insider persistence route. Case recovery is not future-risk control.

D:

A recurring job can continue exfiltration without interactive logins; the case needs recurrence prevention addressing whether scheduled automation is an insider persistence route; an investigation is not recurrence prevention.

Question 1061

The recurrence-prevention decision is based on this report: The security program flags every employee who works at night as a possible insider without considering job schedules. What measure strengthens readiness against the observed event?

  1. Tune alerts to sensitive actions and peer-role deviations
  2. Use dual control for log policy changes and alert on tampering
  3. Require contextual triage before intrusive investigation or sanctions
  4. Compare alerts with shift rosters, job duties and normal activity distributions
  5. Review analytics for bias, relevance and false-positive rates

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

Responsible detection limits harm and operator fatigue; its effectiveness can be exercised against the warning conditions associated with whether behavior analytics has an appropriate baseline.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A targeted model improves precision while preserving privacy; the case needs recurrence prevention addressing whether behavior analytics has an appropriate baseline; case recovery is not future-risk control.

B:

Separation of duties strengthens insider detection; that method could help with whether monitoring is independent of monitored insiders; the recurrence prevention decision here involves whether behavior analytics has an appropriate baseline.

C:

Fair analysis prevents unsupported escalation; for whether behavior analytics has an appropriate baseline, one-time protection is not durable prevention; recurrence prevention remains necessary.

D:

Atypical time alone does not establish malicious intent; the requirement concerns whether behavior analytics has an appropriate baseline, so an investigation is not recurrence prevention.

Question 1062

A case is escalated for independent verification after this finding: A developer disables audit logging on a production repository shortly before copying protected branches. What collection or comparison would validate the reported condition?

  1. Restore protected audit collection and restrict the responsible privileged session
  2. Alert on audit disablement and require independent approval of logging changes
  3. Correlate file-deletion events, repository activity and identity records
  4. Compare audit-setting changes, branch downloads and privileged session records

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The sequence can reveal deliberate evasion followed by export; it makes the determination of whether monitoring suppression preceded data movement defensible and reviewable by the incident owner.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Containment stops further blind copying; for whether monitoring suppression preceded data movement, immediate protection does not substantiate findings; evidence validation remains necessary.

B:

Administrative separation makes concealment harder; the requirement concerns whether monitoring suppression preceded data movement, so prevention is not incident verification.

C:

Independent deletion traces can establish activity even after user cleanup; the activity targets whether destructive insider activity occurred; evidence validation here concerns whether monitoring suppression preceded data movement.

Question 1063

The recovery owner is reviewing the underlying failure in this report: A company allows departing administrators to retain remote tokens until the end of a monthly access review. What action most directly repairs the affected access, evidence or system state?

  1. Migrate shared access to per-person privileged identities and review historical changes
  2. Audit post-termination activity and reclaim registered devices and secrets
  3. Revoke the departing user's active tokens and privileged entitlements immediately
  4. Automate identity revocation from verified HR lifecycle events

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Offboarding completeness includes machine and application credentials; this goes beyond temporary protection and addresses the failure identified through whether offboarding revokes privileges promptly.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery fixes attribution and narrows privilege distribution; that method could help with whether insider action attribution is possible; the trusted restoration decision here involves whether offboarding revokes privileges promptly.

C:

Timely containment closes the access gap; temporary protection does not complete correction in the decision about whether offboarding revokes privileges promptly.

D:

Event-driven offboarding reduces exposure windows; the case needs trusted restoration addressing whether offboarding revokes privileges promptly; future hardening is not current-state recovery.

Question 1064

The immediate risk must be managed. The response record describes: Privileged shared administrator accounts are common, making it impossible to tie database changes to one person. Which intervention is most effective before full eradication or restoration?

  1. Require named administrative sessions before further high-risk changes
  2. Reduce access to approved objects and remove bulk-export rights
  3. Migrate shared access to per-person privileged identities and review historical changes
  4. Compare shared-login use with individual session and bastion audit records

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Individual accountability reduces ambiguity while investigation proceeds; the scope of this restriction follows whether insider action attribution is possible rather than indiscriminately changing unrelated assets.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Least-privilege containment narrows the contractor's reachable data; this serves whether third-party access exceeds business need, whereas the requested result is initial containment or preservation involving whether insider action attribution is possible.

C:

Recovery fixes attribution and narrows privilege distribution; corrective follow-through follows initial protection in the decision about whether insider action attribution is possible.

D:

An unshared account identity is needed for reliable person-level attribution; the case needs initial containment or preservation addressing whether insider action attribution is possible; investigation alone does not control current conditions.

Question 1065

The team has retained the initial evidence and is assessing recovery from: A former employee's shared links still grant external collaborators access after the employee's account was removed. What restoration task closes the identified integrity or control gap?

  1. Rebuild approved automation identities and rotate any shared secrets
  2. Revoke unapproved links and restrict external sharing on affected repositories
  3. Review access history and regrant legitimate partners through accountable identities
  4. Include sharing-link inventory in offboarding checklists

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Recovery preserves business collaboration without orphaned links; the owner can validate the correction against the evidence bearing on whether resource-level sharing survives identity disablement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery restores legitimate operation without hidden privileges; that method could help with whether non-person identity persistence remains; the trusted restoration decision here involves whether resource-level sharing survives identity disablement.

B:

Containment closes persistent data access paths; for whether resource-level sharing survives identity disablement, temporary protection does not complete correction; trusted restoration remains necessary.

D:

Account deletion alone may not remove delegated exposure; the goal is trusted restoration for whether resource-level sharing survives identity disablement. Future hardening is not current-state recovery.

Question 1066

A post-incident audit examines the following failure mode: A compromised insider deleted a team's project files but also corrupted synchronization records on laptops. What recurring check or restriction would best address the weakness?

  1. Compare centralized version history with endpoint sync queues and restore checkpoints
  2. Use immutable recovery points and test mass-deletion restore procedures
  3. Use baseline ACL monitoring and approval gates for bulk changes
  4. Pause affected synchronization clients before restoring files
  5. Restore verified versions and then reconcile client sync state carefully

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Backup design must account for synchronization propagation; it closes a repeatable gap revealed by whether restoration will replay deletions without removing useful monitoring.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unchecked synchronization may reapply destructive changes to recovered data; an investigation is not recurrence prevention in the decision about whether restoration will replay deletions.

C:

Configuration drift detection exposes stealthy permission modification; this serves whether permission integrity can be restored from a baseline, whereas the requested result is recurrence prevention involving whether restoration will replay deletions.

D:

Containing queued state prevents re-deletion; for whether restoration will replay deletions, one-time protection is not durable prevention; recurrence prevention remains necessary.

E:

Coordinated recovery protects the restored dataset; the requirement concerns whether restoration will replay deletions, so case recovery is not future-risk control.

Question 1067

The recovery owner is reviewing the underlying failure in this report: The organization has no protection for privileged audit logs against modification by the same administrators being monitored. What action most directly repairs the affected access, evidence or system state?

  1. Implement immutable storage and independent access review for audit data
  2. Tune alerts to sensitive actions and peer-role deviations
  3. Use dual control for log policy changes and alert on tampering
  4. Export logs to a security-owned restricted repository

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Evidence should remain verifiable after compromise; this goes beyond temporary protection and addresses the failure identified through whether monitoring is independent of monitored insiders.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A targeted model improves precision while preserving privacy; the other incident centers on whether behavior analytics has an appropriate baseline, not this trusted restoration question about whether monitoring is independent of monitored insiders.

C:

Separation of duties strengthens insider detection; future hardening is not current-state recovery in the decision about whether monitoring is independent of monitored insiders.

D:

Administrative separation protects existing evidence; the case needs trusted restoration addressing whether monitoring is independent of monitored insiders; temporary protection does not complete correction.

Question 1068

The response record begins with an unresolved observation: A senior analyst requests an export of all customer records citing a secret project but provides no authorized project ticket. What documentation or telemetry would most reliably support the incident determination?

  1. Correlate query volume, time, business tasks and destination transfer records
  2. Hold the exceptional export pending independent project-owner approval
  3. Check access request approvals, project sponsor and prior export behavior
  4. Require documented purpose and dual approval for high-volume exports

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Seniority alone does not establish need for a mass data export; this evidence is scoped to whether claimed business justification can be verified, not a generic system-health reading.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Large night exports can be suspicious when outside normal assigned work; it is meant to address whether unusual legitimate tooling masks insider exfiltration, not evidence validation for whether claimed business justification can be verified.

B:

Authorization checks protect against misuse without making accusations; when judging whether claimed business justification can be verified, immediate protection does not substantiate findings; this is instead initial containment or preservation.

D:

Process safeguards limit sensitive data movement; the requirement concerns whether claimed business justification can be verified, so prevention is not incident verification.

Question 1069

The initial scene or threat protection decision concerns the following: An endpoint reports unusual LSASS memory access by a non-security process after a phishing click. How should responders limit the damage while retaining the investigation trail?

  1. Investigate credential material exposure, rotate accounts and remove tooling
  2. Isolate the device and limit use of exposed credentials
  3. Revoke the questionable session and restrict the affected account
  4. Correlate process access telemetry, privileges and executable provenance
  5. Use protected credential features and detect sensitive process access

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Containment protects both endpoint and potential downstream identities; this reduces current exposure associated with whether credential dumping was attempted and permits later corrective work.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery must consider identity compromise even if the process exits; for whether credential dumping was attempted, corrective follow-through follows initial protection; initial containment or preservation remains necessary.

C:

Identity containment limits use of the newly gained access; that method could help with whether password guessing became successful access; the initial containment or preservation decision here involves whether credential dumping was attempted.

D:

Unexpected access to the authentication process can indicate credential theft; investigation alone does not control current conditions in the decision about whether credential dumping was attempted.

E:

Memory access controls reduce credential-dumping opportunities; the case needs initial containment or preservation addressing whether credential dumping was attempted; prevention cannot replace immediate action.

Question 1070

A containment decision is required for this incident: A plant engineer proposes rebooting a suspected compromised controller during an active batch process. What action constrains the incident at the affected point of control?

  1. Schedule verified firmware or logic restoration during an authorized safe state
  2. Consult process state, fail-safe design and vendor maintenance guidance
  3. Follow site safety procedures and coordinate any network isolation with control engineers
  4. Use plant-approved protective actions before any controller power change

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Physical safety and continuity determine acceptable containment; this is a first-response safeguard for whether reboot is operationally safe, not a substitute for full root-cause analysis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

OT recovery should not bypass maintenance interlocks; corrective follow-through follows initial protection in the decision about whether reboot is operationally safe.

B:

A routine IT reboot can interrupt industrial equipment unpredictably; the case needs initial containment or preservation addressing whether reboot is operationally safe; investigation alone does not control current conditions.

C:

Unplanned shutdown can create greater physical danger; it is meant to address whether physical process safety is at risk, not initial containment or preservation for whether reboot is operationally safe.

EC-Council Certified Incident Handler (212-89) Practice Tests