ECCouncil 212-89 (EC-Council Certified Incident Handler) Practice Test 113

Question 1120

The team requires traceable proof for an event described as follows: An industrial controller vendor prohibits untested security agents, but the SOC intends to install a standard endpoint scanner during an incident. What should be correlated to determine whether the case finding is justified?

  1. Maintain OT-specific tool approvals and isolated test environments
  2. Measure event volume, retention settings and off-host forwarding latency
  3. Confirm vendor support, process dependencies and authorized maintenance procedures
  4. Use passive telemetry and coordinate containment with OT engineers

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Unvalidated software can disrupt controllers and physical operations; it makes the determination of whether the equipment vendor approves the proposed scanner for this controller defensible and reviewable by the incident owner.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Preparation avoids dangerous production experiments; when judging whether the equipment vendor approves the proposed scanner for this controller, prevention is not incident verification; this is instead recurrence prevention.

B:

Noisy logs can crowd out security events before collection; that method could help with whether security telemetry capacity is adequate; the evidence validation decision here involves whether the equipment vendor approves the proposed scanner for this controller.

D:

Safety and operational continuity govern intervention choices; the goal is evidence validation for whether the equipment vendor approves the proposed scanner for this controller. Immediate protection does not substantiate findings.

Question 1121

The response team seeks the relevant control point for this problem: A response team has no tested way to isolate Macs because its EDR isolation instructions cover only Windows. Investigators need both a defensible factual finding and a limited immediate safeguard. Which TWO actions jointly satisfy those requirements? (Choose TWO.)

  1. Apply an approved network-level quarantine for uncovered endpoints
  2. Test platform-specific isolation and acquisition on representative Macs
  3. Enforce managed enrollment, encryption and loss-response testing
  4. Maintain OS-specific responder guides and version compatibility checks
  5. Compare fleet OS inventory with available isolation tooling and privileges

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Alternative containment should not depend on a nonexistent host action; within the combined response for whether endpoint playbooks cover deployed operating systems, this supplies initial containment or preservation: it protects the affected workflow while investigators continue resolving whether endpoint playbooks cover deployed operating systems.

E:

Unsupported instructions can fail on a material part of the device estate; within the combined response for whether endpoint playbooks cover deployed operating systems, this supplies evidence validation: this permits a traceable finding about whether endpoint playbooks cover deployed operating systems before the team makes a disruptive change.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Preparation should verify tool behavior on each supported OS; corrective follow-through follows initial protection in the decision about whether endpoint playbooks cover deployed operating systems.

C:

Prepared controls reduce loss impact; that method could help with whether mobile device management can contain loss; the initial containment or preservation decision here involves whether endpoint playbooks cover deployed operating systems.

D:

Cross-platform readiness reduces operational delay; when judging whether endpoint playbooks cover deployed operating systems, prevention cannot replace immediate action; this is instead recurrence prevention.

Question 1122

During lessons learned, the security owner reviews this completed incident: A tablet fleet has no procedure to issue supervised remote locks after devices are reported stolen. Which repeatable safeguard best prevents this failure mode in the future?

  1. Record device loss, assess local encryption and rotate relevant credentials
  2. Review MDM enrollment, last check-in and available lock commands
  3. Maintain OS-specific responder guides and version compatibility checks
  4. Enforce managed enrollment, encryption and loss-response testing

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Prepared controls reduce loss impact; this turns the weakness behind whether mobile device management can contain loss into a measurable prevention requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery addresses information risk beyond physical hardware; the case needs recurrence prevention addressing whether mobile device management can contain loss; case recovery is not future-risk control.

B:

Device management capabilities depend on enrollment and connectivity; when judging whether mobile device management can contain loss, an investigation is not recurrence prevention; this is instead evidence validation.

C:

Cross-platform readiness reduces operational delay; that method could help with whether endpoint playbooks cover deployed operating systems; the recurrence prevention decision here involves whether mobile device management can contain loss.

Question 1123

A triage analyst needs to test a report involving these details: A remote maintenance vendor connects to an industrial gateway from an unapproved device with a previously issued credential. Which evidence collection or correlation is most relevant to this claim?

  1. Terminate the unauthorized vendor session through site procedure
  2. Review vendor session recording, gateway logs and maintenance authorization
  3. Use supervised time-bound vendor access with device trust checks
  4. Review vendor patch constraints, network exposure and available application allowlisting

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A valid credential does not prove the connection was approved; for this investigation, the relevant uncertainty is whether vendor remote access was misused, so independent confirmation matters.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Remote access containment reduces the risk of controller manipulation; the goal is evidence validation for whether vendor remote access was misused. Immediate protection does not substantiate findings.

C:

Controlled maintenance reduces latent remote entry points; the case needs evidence validation addressing whether vendor remote access was misused; prevention is not incident verification.

D:

Risk mitigation may require isolation when ordinary patching is impractical; this serves whether compensating controls can reduce endpoint risk, whereas the requested result is evidence validation involving whether vendor remote access was misused.

Question 1124

Before destructive cleanup is authorized, the team faces this situation: An industrial workstation runs unsupported operating-system software that cannot be patched during continuous production. The current decision requires two different outcomes: evidence-based verification AND initial protection, without treating cleanup as complete. Which TWO measures provide those outcomes? (Choose TWO.)

  1. Constrain access to approved protocols and maintenance systems
  2. Schedule vendor-supported upgrades and validate equipment behavior in staging
  3. Use asset inventory, virtual patching and controlled maintenance windows
  4. Use supervised time-bound vendor access with device trust checks
  5. Review vendor patch constraints, network exposure and available application allowlisting

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Segmentation reduces exposure without untested production changes; within the combined response for whether compensating controls can reduce endpoint risk, this supplies initial containment or preservation: this reduces current exposure associated with whether compensating controls can reduce endpoint risk and permits later corrective work.

E:

Risk mitigation may require isolation when ordinary patching is impractical; within the combined response for whether compensating controls can reduce endpoint risk, this supplies evidence validation: for this investigation, the relevant uncertainty is whether compensating controls can reduce endpoint risk, so independent confirmation matters.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Safe recovery plans respect process dependencies; the goal is initial containment or preservation for whether compensating controls can reduce endpoint risk. Corrective follow-through follows initial protection.

C:

Compensating controls reduce risk until supported updates are possible; prevention cannot replace immediate action in the decision about whether compensating controls can reduce endpoint risk.

D:

Controlled maintenance reduces latent remote entry points; the other incident centers on whether vendor remote access was misused, not this initial containment or preservation question about whether compensating controls can reduce endpoint risk.

Question 1125

Service owners need a bounded short-term safeguard after observing: A workstation generates an alert for a binary launched from a temporary folder, but the analyst has only its file name. Investigators need both a defensible factual finding and a limited immediate safeguard. Which TWO actions jointly satisfy those requirements? (Choose TWO.)

  1. Inspect file hash, signer, parent process and command-line context
  2. Restrict remote assistance tools and record privileged sessions
  3. Analyze the artifact and remove persistence if compromise is confirmed
  4. Use behavior-based EDR detections with process ancestry
  5. Restrict the suspicious process while preserving relevant telemetry

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

Name or location alone is insufficient to prove malicious execution; within the combined response for what corroborates suspicious endpoint execution, this supplies evidence validation: this permits a traceable finding about what corroborates suspicious endpoint execution before the team makes a disruptive change.

E:

Targeted action limits risk during validation; within the combined response for what corroborates suspicious endpoint execution, this supplies initial containment or preservation: it protects the affected workflow while investigators continue resolving what corroborates suspicious endpoint execution.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Approved support tooling improves auditability; this serves whether a remote-management tool was abused, whereas the requested result is initial containment or preservation involving what corroborates suspicious endpoint execution.

C:

A defensible outcome follows evidence rather than filename alone; the goal is initial containment or preservation for what corroborates suspicious endpoint execution. Corrective follow-through follows initial protection.

D:

Context improves endpoint triage precision; prevention cannot replace immediate action in the decision about what corroborates suspicious endpoint execution.

Question 1126

The response record begins with an unresolved observation: An EDR alert shows a suspicious executable launched by a legitimate remote administration utility. What documentation or telemetry would most reliably support the incident determination?

  1. Remove the launched payload, verify the support agent and restrict permitted child execution
  2. Inspect file hash, signer, parent process and command-line context
  3. Restrict remote assistance tools and record privileged sessions
  4. Correlate remote session identity, process tree and execution time
  5. Revoke unauthorized remote sessions and isolate the affected host

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A legitimate support binary can still start attacker-controlled commands; this evidence is scoped to whether a remote-management tool was abused, not a generic system-health reading.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Trusted agent state and restricted child processes prevent the sanctioned tool from silently relaunching the same payload; the requirement concerns whether a remote-management tool was abused, so recovery is not factual verification.

B:

Name or location alone is insufficient to prove malicious execution; the other incident centers on what corroborates suspicious endpoint execution, not this evidence validation question about whether a remote-management tool was abused.

C:

Approved support tooling improves auditability; prevention is not incident verification in the decision about whether a remote-management tool was abused.

E:

Access-path containment is essential beyond blocking one file; when judging whether a remote-management tool was abused, immediate protection does not substantiate findings; this is instead initial containment or preservation.

Question 1127

The team has retained the initial evidence and is assessing recovery from: An endpoint agent identifies an unusual persistence service but its parent installer is an approved device management package. What restoration task closes the identified integrity or control gap?

  1. Avoid destructive isolation while completing targeted validation
  2. Verify installer signatures, deployment manifest and service command path
  3. Maintain signed package inventory and change-aware endpoint detections
  4. Document the disposition and tune detection to the approved deployment identity
  5. Tune the specific rule and document tested expected execution

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Accurate closure retains visibility for future malicious variants; the resulting state needs verification against the original concern: whether the service change is authorized.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Proportionate response minimizes disruption from false positives; the goal is trusted restoration for whether the service change is authorized. Temporary protection does not complete correction.

B:

A suspicious-looking service can be legitimate if trusted release evidence corroborates it; verification is not the corrective step in the decision about whether the service change is authorized.

C:

Context reduces incorrect persistence alerts; the case needs trusted restoration addressing whether the service change is authorized; future hardening is not current-state recovery.

E:

Recovery restores normal updates without sacrificing coverage; that method could help with whether the alert is a benign software change; the trusted restoration decision here involves whether the service change is authorized.

Question 1128

The owner must verify the return to a trusted state for the following: An iPhone user accepts an untrusted mobile configuration profile that adds a suspicious VPN and root certificate. What corrective work is needed before routine operations resume?

  1. Remove the app through managed procedures and assess exposed accounts
  2. Remove the unauthorized profile under managed procedures and revoke exposed sessions
  3. Use managed configuration profile controls and certificate governance
  4. Re-establish trusted configuration and inspect for possible intercepted accounts

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Recovery should treat redirected sensitive traffic as a possible disclosure; the affected workflow should not be considered trusted until the issue of whether configuration profiles redirect or intercept traffic is resolved.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery includes the information the app may have observed; the other incident centers on whether abuse of accessibility services is occurring, not this trusted restoration question about whether configuration profiles redirect or intercept traffic.

B:

Containment stops routing through the suspect configuration; the goal is trusted restoration for whether configuration profiles redirect or intercept traffic. Temporary protection does not complete correction.

C:

Approved enrollment prevents silent network trust changes; future hardening is not current-state recovery in the decision about whether configuration profiles redirect or intercept traffic.

Question 1129

Post-containment analysis identified this issue for correction: An endpoint reports unusual LSASS memory access by a non-security process after a phishing click. Which remediation is supported by the observed root-cause conditions?

  1. Isolate the device and limit use of exposed credentials
  2. Investigate credential material exposure, rotate accounts and remove tooling
  3. Reset compromised credentials and review all privileged changes
  4. Use protected credential features and detect sensitive process access

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Recovery must consider identity compromise even if the process exits; the change should be tested before unrestricted operations resume for the event involving whether credential dumping was attempted.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Containment protects both endpoint and potential downstream identities; for whether credential dumping was attempted, temporary protection does not complete correction; trusted restoration remains necessary.

C:

Restoration requires checking what happened after login; that method could help with whether password guessing became successful access; the trusted restoration decision here involves whether credential dumping was attempted.

D:

Memory access controls reduce credential-dumping opportunities; future hardening is not current-state recovery in the decision about whether credential dumping was attempted.

Question 1130

The immediate risk must be managed. The response record describes: An OT network sees new programming commands to a PLC from a workstation that normally only displays status. The first response plan must document the reported condition AND limit near-term harm. Select TWO case-specific steps. (Choose TWO.)

  1. Verify PLC logic against approved baseline and validate process behavior
  2. Restrict engineering protocol writes from the suspect station under OT change control
  3. Compare PLC programming audit, source identity and authorized engineering schedule
  4. Allowlist engineering workstations and monitor PLC program changes
  5. Use change approval, role segregation and process anomaly detection

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Write-path containment protects controller logic while preserving monitoring; within the combined response for whether a nonengineering station initiated controller changes, this supplies initial containment or preservation: the scope of this restriction follows whether a nonengineering station initiated controller changes rather than indiscriminately changing unrelated assets.

C:

Command type and workstation role help identify unauthorized modification; within the combined response for whether a nonengineering station initiated controller changes, this supplies evidence validation: it connects the question of whether a nonengineering station initiated controller changes to an observable record and a reproducible check.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery requires safe controller state confirmation; when judging whether a nonengineering station initiated controller changes, corrective follow-through follows initial protection; this is instead trusted restoration.

D:

Separated roles reduce unauthorized logic updates; the goal is initial containment or preservation for whether a nonengineering station initiated controller changes. Prevention cannot replace immediate action.

E:

Safety-aware controls detect unauthorized setpoint modifications; this serves whether physical process safety is at risk, whereas the requested result is initial containment or preservation involving whether a nonengineering station initiated controller changes.

EC-Council Certified Incident Handler (212-89) Practice Tests