ECCouncil 212-89 (EC-Council Certified Incident Handler) Practice Test 36

Question 350

The incident is resolved, but its root weakness still requires policy attention: Multiple staff reuse local administrator passwords across laptops infected by a credential stealer. What durable process or monitoring change would make a repeat less likely?

  1. Use application allowlisting and teach verified software-update paths
  2. Use unique managed local administrator passwords with least privilege
  3. Compare local administrator credential reuse and lateral authentication logs
  4. Rotate affected local passwords and verify no unauthorized sessions remain

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Non-reusable local secrets contain compromise impact; its effectiveness can be exercised against the warning conditions associated with why one infected device can lead to many endpoint logins.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Policy and awareness reduce social engineering that impersonates updates; the relevant condition for that step is why user-driven fake updates bypassed approved channels, which is not shown for why one infected device can lead to many endpoint logins.

C:

Shared secrets can turn a single theft into broad access; the goal is recurrence prevention for why one infected device can lead to many endpoint logins. An investigation is not recurrence prevention.

D:

Credential renewal removes the reusable access route; case recovery is not future-risk control in the decision about why one infected device can lead to many endpoint logins.

Question 351

Cleanup is not considered complete. The case record describes: A Windows endpoint contains an executable masquerading as a system process in a user-writable folder. Which remediation task is necessary rather than merely suppressing the visible symptom?

  1. Replace altered components and fix writable library paths
  2. Quarantine the user-writable binary and isolate related process execution
  3. Alert on system-like process names executing from writable directories
  4. Check signer, executable path, hash and parent process rather than display name
  5. Remove the imposter and investigate how it was launched

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

Startup links or scripts can recreate the fraudulent process; the affected workflow should not be considered trusted until the issue of whether a process name is being spoofed is resolved.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cleaning only the signed executable misses the malicious dependency; that method could help with whether DLL side-loading caused the activity; the trusted restoration decision here involves whether a process name is being spoofed.

B:

Action against the real file avoids disrupting the genuine operating-system component; when judging whether a process name is being spoofed, temporary protection does not complete correction; this is instead initial containment or preservation.

C:

Path-aware monitoring distinguishes impersonation from normal OS activity; for whether a process name is being spoofed, future hardening is not current-state recovery; trusted restoration remains necessary.

D:

A familiar name outside the expected protected directory can mask malware; the requirement concerns whether a process name is being spoofed, so verification is not the corrective step.

Question 352

Following initial stabilization, the team must prove recovery for this case: Following cleanup, responders cannot explain why the same malicious service reappears after a configuration-management run. Which correction must be verified before the affected service or process is restored?

  1. Repair or reinstall trusted security instrumentation and retest detections
  2. Pause the offending deployment job and quarantine its source artifacts
  3. Repair the trusted image or manifest and redeploy only signed verified content
  4. Protect build systems and require approval for baseline configuration changes

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Root-cause cleanup must include the software distribution pipeline; the change should be tested before unrestricted operations resume for the event involving whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery should restore the ability to observe subsequent malicious activity; the other incident centers on whether recovery validation includes monitoring health, not this trusted restoration question about whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware.

B:

Stopping distribution prevents repeated contamination; the goal is trusted restoration for whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware. Temporary protection does not complete correction.

D:

Supply-chain integrity is part of malware prevention; the case needs trusted restoration addressing whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware; future hardening is not current-state recovery.

Question 353

To prevent the next similar event, analysts review this case: An application server begins mining cryptocurrency and generating high CPU usage from a newly deployed container image. Which preventive change targets the exact pathway that failed?

  1. Redeploy from a verified image and rotate exposed workload secrets
  2. Compare image provenance, running process tree and outbound mining-pool traffic
  3. Sign and scan images and restrict unapproved registry sources
  4. Harden Office child-process restrictions and PowerShell telemetry

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Software supply-chain controls reduce malicious workload deployment; this turns the weakness behind whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse into a measurable prevention requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A compromised image or credential can persist across simple restarts; the requirement concerns whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse, so case recovery is not future-risk control.

B:

Container identity and runtime behavior establish whether the workload is compromised; the goal is recurrence prevention for whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse. An investigation is not recurrence prevention.

D:

Application controls reduce this common execution chain; the activity targets whether a document triggered script-based malware; recurrence prevention here concerns whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse.

Question 354

Post-containment analysis identified this issue for correction: A finance workstation still allows unsigned macros from internet-downloaded spreadsheets. Which remediation is supported by the observed root-cause conditions?

  1. Disable unauthorized macro execution and quarantine the offending attachment
  2. Rotate affected local passwords and verify no unauthorized sessions remain
  3. Block internet-origin macros and use signed workflows for approved automation
  4. Remove persistence, validate the host and recover any modified data

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Execution prevention does not eliminate effects already present; the resulting state needs verification against the original concern: whether document execution controls are effective.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Control prevents additional users from invoking the same script; temporary protection does not complete correction in the decision about whether document execution controls are effective.

B:

Credential renewal removes the reusable access route; the relevant condition for that step is why one infected device can lead to many endpoint logins, which is not shown for whether document execution controls are effective.

C:

Trusted authoring controls reduce malware entry opportunities; when judging whether document execution controls are effective, future hardening is not current-state recovery; this is instead recurrence prevention.

Question 355

The incident owner requests a defensible factual determination after hearing: A trojan uses a compromised service account to read databases after its file is deleted. What fact-checking activity tests the observed failure most directly?

  1. Inspect service-account tokens, credential use and database audit logs
  2. Revoke active tokens and restrict the account while retaining audit logs
  3. Compare system proxy settings, installed certificates and process listeners
  4. Use managed identities where possible and monitor anomalous service-account use

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

File deletion does not invalidate previously stolen credentials or sessions; it makes the determination of which access path remains dangerous defensible and reviewable by the incident owner.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Identity containment stops continued database access; the requirement concerns which access path remains dangerous, so immediate protection does not substantiate findings.

C:

Local proxy changes can redirect traffic even after the original installer exits; the other incident centers on whether a configuration-based interception remains active, not this evidence validation question about which access path remains dangerous.

D:

Reducing reusable secrets lowers credential replay risk; prevention is not incident verification in the decision about which access path remains dangerous.

Question 356

Active first response is underway for the following condition: An endpoint shows a new kernel driver shortly before security agents begin failing. What is the most appropriate short-term restriction or first-response decision?

  1. Isolate the host and suspend suspicious injected activity under forensic procedures
  2. Inspect driver-load events, signature status and kernel integrity indicators
  3. Disconnect the endpoint using an external network control if host sensors are untrusted
  4. Rebuild from trusted media and verify firmware and driver integrity as warranted

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Out-of-band isolation avoids reliance on a potentially disabled agent; it protects the affected workflow while investigators continue resolving whether low-level tampering explains sensor loss.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The active process may still communicate even with a clean disk scan; that method could help with whether in-memory execution explains the alert; the initial containment or preservation decision here involves whether low-level tampering explains sensor loss.

B:

A suspicious driver can interfere with EDR visibility and operating-system protections; when judging whether low-level tampering explains sensor loss, investigation alone does not control current conditions; this is instead evidence validation.

D:

Deep compromise may leave artifacts beyond an ordinary file quarantine; the requirement concerns whether low-level tampering explains sensor loss, so corrective follow-through follows initial protection.

Question 357

The team requires traceable proof for an event described as follows: An organization discovers that endpoint alerts are retained for only a day despite frequent weekend outages. What should be correlated to determine whether the case finding is justified?

  1. Review EDR event retention, log export and investigation access settings
  2. Test weekend investigation scenarios and evidence retrieval deadlines
  3. Forward critical endpoint events to protected central storage immediately
  4. Test authorized access to recovery material with the server disconnected
  5. Establish adequate retention with access controls and retrieval tests

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Insufficient history can hide the initial payload and lateral movement; this evidence is scoped to whether malware telemetry will survive delayed discovery, not a generic system-health reading.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Preparedness should reflect realistic detection latency; prevention is not incident verification in the decision about whether malware telemetry will survive delayed discovery.

C:

Off-host records remain available if an infected endpoint is wiped; the case needs evidence validation addressing whether malware telemetry will survive delayed discovery; immediate protection does not substantiate findings.

D:

A credential trapped on compromised infrastructure is not a usable emergency recovery asset; this serves whether recovery keys remain accessible during host isolation, whereas the requested result is evidence validation involving whether malware telemetry will survive delayed discovery.

E:

Retention must support actual investigation windows and response obligations; for whether malware telemetry will survive delayed discovery, recovery is not factual verification; evidence validation remains necessary.

Question 358

The team needs temporary protection and must retain evidence. The observed event is: A response team cannot safely analyze unknown executables because analysts run them on production desktops. What narrowly scoped action would best control the immediate risk?

  1. Run samples in a controlled sandbox and preserve observations and hashes
  2. Forward critical endpoint events to protected central storage immediately
  3. Prohibit live execution on production endpoints and quarantine samples
  4. Inventory isolated sandbox capacity and access to safe forensic tooling

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The containment boundary prevents analysis from spreading malware; it restricts the path implicated in whether malware analysis has appropriate isolation; later eradication and restoration remain separate decisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An isolated test enables behavioral analysis without risking corporate workloads; for whether malware analysis has appropriate isolation, corrective follow-through follows initial protection; initial containment or preservation remains necessary.

B:

Off-host records remain available if an infected endpoint is wiped; that method could help with whether malware telemetry will survive delayed discovery; the initial containment or preservation decision here involves whether malware analysis has appropriate isolation.

D:

Untrusted code should be examined in a controlled environment that cannot reach business systems; investigation alone does not control current conditions in the decision about whether malware analysis has appropriate isolation.

Question 359

After technical restoration, responders document the weakness exposed by: Security monitoring sees an unsigned PowerShell process spawning from a downloaded Office document. Which long-term control would reduce exposure to this specific pattern?

  1. Remove the malicious document and persistence and check secondary payloads
  2. Sign and scan images and restrict unapproved registry sources
  3. Harden Office child-process restrictions and PowerShell telemetry
  4. Correlate Office process ancestry with PowerShell command-line and script block logs

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Application controls reduce this common execution chain; it closes a repeatable gap revealed by whether a document triggered script-based malware without removing useful monitoring.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The first script may only download or launch further components; case recovery is not future-risk control in the decision about whether a document triggered script-based malware.

B:

Software supply-chain controls reduce malicious workload deployment; that method could help with whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse; the recurrence prevention decision here involves whether a document triggered script-based malware.

D:

Parent-child and script evidence connect the document action to execution; for whether a document triggered script-based malware, an investigation is not recurrence prevention; recurrence prevention remains necessary.

Question 360

A containment decision is required for this incident: A ransomware affiliate disables volume shadow copies just before encrypting departmental data. What action constrains the incident at the affected point of control?

  1. Correlate backup-management commands with file-encryption onset
  2. Rebuild affected systems and recover from protected backups verified clean
  3. Terminate the offending execution and secure isolated recovery repositories
  4. Disconnect the infected client and revoke its write access to the share

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Protecting remaining copies is crucial before broader restoration; this is a first-response safeguard for whether backup-suppression activity is part of the attack, not a substitute for full root-cause analysis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Destructive backup commands help establish intent and attack chronology; for whether backup-suppression activity is part of the attack, investigation alone does not control current conditions; initial containment or preservation remains necessary.

B:

Local shadow copies may be unavailable or untrustworthy; the requirement concerns whether backup-suppression activity is part of the attack, so corrective follow-through follows initial protection.

D:

Stopping the active writer limits damage while preserving clean snapshots; it is meant to address which containment step stops ongoing encryption, not initial containment or preservation for whether backup-suppression activity is part of the attack.

EC-Council Certified Incident Handler (212-89) Practice Tests