ECCouncil 212-89 (EC-Council Certified Incident Handler) Practice Test 57

Question 560

A security analyst is asked to validate the following reported behavior: An attacker uses a compromised switch management account to add a port mirror toward an unauthorized collector. Which check can confirm the relevant facts before a disruptive action?

  1. Inspect switch configuration diff, command audit and physical port inventory
  2. Use reviewed network-device configuration management and admin MFA
  3. Review rule hit logs, deployment diff and management-plane listening interfaces
  4. Restore trusted switch configuration and rotate administration credentials
  5. Disable the unauthorized mirror and restrict compromised management access

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A mirror configuration can reveal confidential traffic without changing production routes; for this investigation, the relevant uncertainty is whether configuration change enabled traffic interception, so independent confirmation matters.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Change control exposes covert monitoring configuration; prevention is not incident verification in the decision about whether configuration change enabled traffic interception.

C:

A broad source range can expose administrative services beyond intended operators; the relevant condition for that step is which configuration allowed unauthorized administrative reachability, which is not shown for whether configuration change enabled traffic interception.

D:

Remediation must address both setup and access method; when judging whether configuration change enabled traffic interception, recovery is not factual verification; this is instead trusted restoration.

E:

Stopping the copy path limits continued interception; for whether configuration change enabled traffic interception, immediate protection does not substantiate findings; evidence validation remains necessary.

Question 561

Cleanup is not considered complete. The case record describes: An IDS flags SQL injection signatures in encrypted traffic but the only visible artifact is TLS metadata. What remaining assessment or remediation is justified after the immediate response?

  1. Request authorized application-layer logs before taking destructive action
  2. Correlate requests and application errors to determine real impact
  3. Place appropriate application-layer telemetry where decryption is authorized
  4. Determine what data left and close the uploader's access path

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A detection signature should be tied to backend behavior; this post-containment check determines the remaining scope relevant to whether the alert was based on decrypted application content before the case is closed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Additional evidence validates the claimed payload and its effect; the requirement concerns whether the alert was based on decrypted application content, so temporary protection does not complete correction.

C:

Visibility supports more defensible web-attack analysis; future hardening is not current-state recovery in the decision about whether the alert was based on decrypted application content.

D:

Exfiltration review needs both transferred content and originating identity; the activity targets whether trusted hosting masks unauthorized upload; post-containment assessment here concerns whether the alert was based on decrypted application content.

Question 562

The team has retained the initial evidence and is assessing recovery from: Network flows show outbound traffic to a sanctioned CDN, but one web request contains a hidden upload to an attacker-controlled path. What restoration task closes the identified integrity or control gap?

  1. Investigate transferred data and remediate the access route if unauthorized
  2. Block the specific unauthorized upload destination or path at the appropriate proxy
  3. Use egress proxy policy and anomaly detection for unusual file uploads
  4. Determine what data left and close the uploader's access path

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Exfiltration review needs both transferred content and originating identity; the change should be tested before unrestricted operations resume for the event involving whether trusted hosting masks unauthorized upload.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Scope assessment is necessary even after the flow stops; the other incident centers on whether unusual egress is approved backup or exfiltration, not this trusted restoration question about whether trusted hosting masks unauthorized upload.

B:

Fine-grained filtering avoids disrupting the entire CDN; temporary protection does not complete correction in the decision about whether trusted hosting masks unauthorized upload.

C:

Destination-aware controls help catch abuse of trusted infrastructure; the case needs trusted restoration addressing whether trusted hosting masks unauthorized upload; future hardening is not current-state recovery.

Question 563

To prevent the next similar event, analysts review this case: A host sends large outbound bursts to a new autonomous system after midnight, but normal backup jobs also run then. Which preventive change targets the exact pathway that failed?

  1. Baseline approved destinations and alert on unexplained bulk transfers
  2. Correlate process identity, destination ownership and backup schedule with network flow
  3. Investigate transferred data and remediate the access route if unauthorized
  4. Alert on abnormal DNS volume, entropy and uncommon query patterns

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Context-aware egress detection reduces false alarms; this turns the weakness behind whether unusual egress is approved backup or exfiltration into a measurable prevention requirement.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Volume and timing alone cannot distinguish backup from theft; when judging whether unusual egress is approved backup or exfiltration, an investigation is not recurrence prevention; this is instead evidence validation.

C:

Scope assessment is necessary even after the flow stops; for whether unusual egress is approved backup or exfiltration, case recovery is not future-risk control; recurrence prevention remains necessary.

D:

Behavioral controls identify tunneling variants; the other incident centers on whether DNS tunneling may carry encoded data, not this recurrence prevention question about whether unusual egress is approved backup or exfiltration.

Question 564

For the next control cycle, the responder supplies this incident history: Traffic engineers see rising HTTP 429 responses after enabling emergency rate limiting on a public service. Which ongoing safeguard should be implemented and tested?

  1. Use per-client quotas, query budgets and abuse analytics
  2. Baseline client demand and test throttling before incidents
  3. Correlate 429 rates, client identity and completed legitimate transactions
  4. Test legitimate workflows and adjust burst handling after the attack

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Well-calibrated controls reduce collateral denial of service; its effectiveness can be exercised against the warning conditions associated with whether mitigation is blocking legitimate clients.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Business-aware controls limit layer-seven denial of service; the activity targets whether application-layer resource exhaustion is responsible; recurrence prevention here concerns whether mitigation is blocking legitimate clients.

C:

Excessive throttling can become a self-inflicted availability issue; the requirement concerns whether mitigation is blocking legitimate clients, so an investigation is not recurrence prevention.

D:

Recovery must validate end-user functionality as well as traffic volume; the goal is recurrence prevention for whether mitigation is blocking legitimate clients. Case recovery is not future-risk control.

Question 565

A responder is tasked with limiting immediate impact after this report: A network incident runbook directs staff to block an IP at a decommissioned firewall rather than the current edge gateway. Which first-response change creates the required visibility or control without assuming the incident is closed?

  1. Coordinate with facilities before applying a narrow containment ACL
  2. Compare topology documentation and active routing with the referenced firewall path
  3. Trigger playbook review after network migrations and segmentation changes
  4. Identify the actual transit control before applying an approved block
  5. Update containment diagrams and perform an end-to-end blocking test

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The response must interrupt the live packet path without damaging unrelated routes; the measured action supports the ongoing decision about whether emergency network enforcement points are current without premature disruption.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Risk-aware enforcement protects essential operation while limiting attacker reach; the activity targets whether segmentation plans protect critical operational dependencies; authorized visibility or enforcement preparation here concerns whether emergency network enforcement points are current.

B:

An obsolete enforcement point cannot stop traffic that bypasses it; investigation alone does not control current conditions in the decision about whether emergency network enforcement points are current.

C:

Change-aware documentation keeps emergency instructions usable; the case needs authorized visibility or enforcement preparation addressing whether emergency network enforcement points are current; prevention cannot replace immediate action.

E:

A verified rule should take effect where intended; for whether emergency network enforcement points are current, corrective follow-through follows initial protection; authorized visibility or enforcement preparation remains necessary.

Question 566

A triage analyst needs to test a report involving these details: An attacker spoofs a victim address in UDP queries to exposed reflection services, causing amplified replies to the victim. Which evidence collection or correlation is most relevant to this claim?

  1. Harden UDP services against reflection and use source-address anti-spoofing
  2. Compare provider interface utilization with local device counters
  3. Inspect reply traffic patterns, protocol types and reflection source distribution
  4. Filter reflected traffic upstream and coordinate with providers

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Many replies from unrelated servers toward one victim suggest reflection abuse; it connects the question of whether amplification rather than direct requests caused the flood to an observable record and a reproducible check.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ingress and egress validation reduce spoofed-packet abuse; the goal is evidence validation for whether amplification rather than direct requests caused the flood. Prevention is not incident verification.

B:

If the circuit is saturated upstream, on-premises drops cannot free the link; this serves where traffic must be filtered to restore availability, whereas the requested result is evidence validation involving whether amplification rather than direct requests caused the flood.

D:

Network-scale mitigation is required when amplifiers are distributed; when judging whether amplification rather than direct requests caused the flood, immediate protection does not substantiate findings; this is instead initial containment or preservation.

Question 567

The team requires traceable proof for an event described as follows: The SIEM alerts on an inbound SMB exploit but packet capture shows only packets blocked at the perimeter. What should be correlated to determine whether the case finding is justified?

  1. Prioritize correlated exploit and post-exploitation detections
  2. Inspect packet rates, response codes and service availability together
  3. Keep the block and hunt for alternate successful paths rather than reimaging immediately
  4. Cross-check firewall disposition with internal server connection and process logs

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An IDS signature in dropped traffic does not prove successful execution; the objective is to establish whether exploit attempts reached a vulnerable host; the result can then guide the later protective decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Multi-source validation reduces false incident escalation; when judging whether exploit attempts reached a vulnerable host, prevention is not incident verification; this is instead recurrence prevention.

B:

Resets can arise from policy, application behavior or deliberate interference; the activity targets whether resets reflect malicious flooding or normal session behavior; evidence validation here concerns whether exploit attempts reached a vulnerable host.

C:

Risk-based response follows evidence of actual access; the requirement concerns whether exploit attempts reached a vulnerable host, so immediate protection does not substantiate findings.

Question 568

The incident is resolved, but its root weakness still requires policy attention: Incident handlers lack an approved method to isolate network devices that manage safety-critical building controls. What durable process or monitoring change would make a repeat less likely?

  1. Inspect network dependencies and documented safe-isolation procedures
  2. Validate alternate management access and normal control flows before restoration
  3. Trigger playbook review after network migrations and segmentation changes
  4. Document and rehearse isolation tiers for critical infrastructure networks

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Preplanned boundaries reduce dangerous improvisation; a periodic review of this safeguard can track the risk described by whether segmentation plans protect critical operational dependencies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing the wrong uplink could disrupt physical safety functions; an investigation is not recurrence prevention in the decision about whether segmentation plans protect critical operational dependencies.

B:

Recovery must verify the safety system remains functional; the case needs recurrence prevention addressing whether segmentation plans protect critical operational dependencies; case recovery is not future-risk control.

C:

Change-aware documentation keeps emergency instructions usable; it is meant to address whether emergency network enforcement points are current, not recurrence prevention for whether segmentation plans protect critical operational dependencies.

Question 569

A tabletop exercise is being updated using the following real-world failure: Employees report a wireless network with the company name but a different certificate prompt near reception. Which improvement should be tracked through the next control-assurance cycle?

  1. Enforce validated enterprise WLAN certificates and managed network profiles
  2. Compare BSSID, radio location, authentication certificate and approved AP inventory
  3. Warn users and coordinate wireless containment under authorized procedures
  4. Maintain wireless intrusion detection and approved AP inventories
  5. Locate and remove the rogue device and assess exposed credentials

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Client authentication helps prevent evil-twin connections; the control owner can test whether this reduces repeat conditions affecting whether an evil twin access point is impersonating the SSID.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A familiar SSID can be broadcast by a rogue access point; an investigation is not recurrence prevention in the decision about whether an evil twin access point is impersonating the SSID.

C:

Avoid indiscriminate jamming while protecting clients from the fake network; the case needs recurrence prevention addressing whether an evil twin access point is impersonating the SSID; one-time protection is not durable prevention.

D:

Continuous comparison detects new unauthorized radios; that method could help with whether the radio is authorized infrastructure; the recurrence prevention decision here involves whether an evil twin access point is impersonating the SSID.

E:

A spoofed WLAN can lead to stolen authentication data; for whether an evil twin access point is impersonating the SSID, case recovery is not future-risk control; recurrence prevention remains necessary.

Question 570

Forensic review begins with this reported event: Access logs show unauthorized RDP logins from one workstation to several servers using a privileged local account. Which evidence-based task answers the primary uncertainty?

  1. Compare RDP logon events, source identifiers and reused account names
  2. Isolate the source workstation and disable exposed RDP account sessions
  3. Use unique local admin credentials and restrict RDP to managed jump hosts
  4. Inspect switch configuration diff, command audit and physical port inventory

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Repeated privileged remote logons indicate likely credential-driven movement; the review should retain source and timing information relevant to whether local credential reuse enabled RDP spread.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Containing the pivot host and identity limits further movement; the requirement concerns whether local credential reuse enabled RDP spread, so immediate protection does not substantiate findings.

C:

Tiered remote management reduces lateral exposure; the goal is evidence validation for whether local credential reuse enabled RDP spread. Prevention is not incident verification.

D:

A mirror configuration can reveal confidential traffic without changing production routes; it is meant to address whether configuration change enabled traffic interception, not evidence validation for whether local credential reuse enabled RDP spread.

EC-Council Certified Incident Handler (212-89) Practice Tests