ECCouncil 212-89 (EC-Council Certified Incident Handler) Practice Test 64

Question 630

To distinguish suspicion from confirmed impact, the SOC examines this case: An API service fails under a small number of computationally expensive authenticated search requests. Which review would give the incident owner the strongest case-specific evidence?

  1. Correlate endpoint latency, query cost, authenticated caller and request frequency
  2. Correlate 429 rates, client identity and completed legitimate transactions
  3. Use per-client quotas, query budgets and abuse analytics
  4. Apply endpoint-specific rate limits and cost caps to abusive clients

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Low-volume requests can exhaust CPU or database resources without a volumetric flood; that evidence directly tests the concern about whether application-layer resource exhaustion is responsible, rather than relying on a single unverified indicator.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Excessive throttling can become a self-inflicted availability issue; the activity targets whether mitigation is blocking legitimate clients; evidence validation here concerns whether application-layer resource exhaustion is responsible.

C:

Business-aware controls limit layer-seven denial of service; the goal is evidence validation for whether application-layer resource exhaustion is responsible. Prevention is not incident verification.

D:

Application-aware throttling targets expensive requests; immediate protection does not substantiate findings in the decision about whether application-layer resource exhaustion is responsible.

Question 631

During lessons learned, the security owner reviews this completed incident: Firewall logs show SYN packets to hundreds of ports on one server, but no completed application sessions. Which repeatable safeguard best prevents this failure mode in the future?

  1. Prioritize correlated exploit and post-exploitation detections
  2. Correlate SYN and response patterns with successful handshakes and service logs
  3. Alert on reconnaissance followed by successful authentication or exploit evidence
  4. Review service exposure and document the scan disposition and observed impact

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Multi-stage detection prioritizes consequential activity; it closes a repeatable gap revealed by whether the traffic represents probing rather than established access without removing useful monitoring.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Multi-source validation reduces false incident escalation; it is meant to address whether exploit attempts reached a vulnerable host, not recurrence prevention for whether the traffic represents probing rather than established access.

B:

Incomplete connection attempts suggest reconnaissance but do not prove application compromise; when judging whether the traffic represents probing rather than established access, an investigation is not recurrence prevention; this is instead evidence validation.

D:

A controlled assessment distinguishes prevented probes from penetration; the requirement concerns whether the traffic represents probing rather than established access, so case recovery is not future-risk control.

Question 632

The recurrence-prevention decision is based on this report: A DNS resolver runs out of worker capacity under a burst of expensive recursive requests. What measure strengthens readiness against the observed event?

  1. Correlate recursion queue, response latency and requester distribution
  2. Validate caching and resolver service health before restoring external access
  3. Use per-client quotas, query budgets and abuse analytics
  4. Do not expose unrestricted recursion and monitor resolver capacity

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Baseline protections reduce abuse as an amplifier or target; it makes the lesson about whether resolver resource exhaustion is the outage cause part of normal operations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Large recursion work can degrade DNS even if interface bandwidth is not full; the requirement concerns whether resolver resource exhaustion is the outage cause, so an investigation is not recurrence prevention.

B:

Correct recovery confirms normal name resolution for legitimate users; the goal is recurrence prevention for whether resolver resource exhaustion is the outage cause. Case recovery is not future-risk control.

C:

Business-aware controls limit layer-seven denial of service; the activity targets whether application-layer resource exhaustion is responsible; recurrence prevention here concerns whether resolver resource exhaustion is the outage cause.

Question 633

A post-incident audit examines the following failure mode: A network incident runbook directs staff to block an IP at a decommissioned firewall rather than the current edge gateway. What recurring check or restriction would best address the weakness?

  1. Maintain immutable off-device network configuration backups
  2. Trigger playbook review after network migrations and segmentation changes
  3. Compare topology documentation and active routing with the referenced firewall path
  4. Update containment diagrams and perform an end-to-end blocking test

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Change-aware documentation keeps emergency instructions usable; the assurance measure is designed around whether emergency network enforcement points are current, rather than hiding the reported activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Independent baselines support dependable incident recovery; the relevant condition for that step is whether trusted baseline configurations are available, which is not shown for whether emergency network enforcement points are current.

C:

An obsolete enforcement point cannot stop traffic that bypasses it; the goal is recurrence prevention for whether emergency network enforcement points are current. An investigation is not recurrence prevention.

D:

A verified rule should take effect where intended; case recovery is not future-risk control in the decision about whether emergency network enforcement points are current.

Question 634

For the next control cycle, the responder supplies this incident history: A firewall rule permits inbound management traffic from any internet address after an emergency deployment. Which ongoing safeguard should be implemented and tested?

  1. Use reviewed network-device configuration management and admin MFA
  2. Restrict management access to approved jump hosts or private networks
  3. Revert the excessive rule and review administrative sessions during exposure
  4. Review rule hit logs, deployment diff and management-plane listening interfaces
  5. Require peer-reviewed policy-as-code checks for management ingress

Explanation

Correct Answer

E:

Preventive validation catches broad administrator access rules; a periodic review of this safeguard can track the risk described by which configuration allowed unauthorized administrative reachability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Change control exposes covert monitoring configuration; the activity targets whether configuration change enabled traffic interception; recurrence prevention here concerns which configuration allowed unauthorized administrative reachability.

B:

Source constraints reduce internet attack surface immediately; for which configuration allowed unauthorized administrative reachability, one-time protection is not durable prevention; recurrence prevention remains necessary.

C:

Recovery checks whether anyone exploited the open access path; the requirement concerns which configuration allowed unauthorized administrative reachability, so case recovery is not future-risk control.

D:

A broad source range can expose administrative services beyond intended operators; the goal is recurrence prevention for which configuration allowed unauthorized administrative reachability. An investigation is not recurrence prevention.

Question 635

An evidence-led review starts with the following report: A visitor plugs a consumer access point into a conference-room Ethernet jack, exposing an internal VLAN. What investigation should establish the disputed activity and its timeline?

  1. Correlate switch port MAC learning, DHCP leases and wireless beacon inventory
  2. Examine 802.11 management frame capture, source addresses and AP association events
  3. Disable the affected switch port and secure the rogue hardware under procedure
  4. Use network access control and restrict unused switch ports

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An unauthorized bridge may provide wireless access to internal resources; this permits a traceable finding about whether a rogue AP bridges a protected wired segment before the team makes a disruptive change.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Deauthentication floods can cause disconnections without normal data traffic; it is meant to address whether management-frame abuse is causing client disruption, not evidence validation for whether a rogue AP bridges a protected wired segment.

C:

Port-level containment removes the unintended bridge; the requirement concerns whether a rogue AP bridges a protected wired segment, so immediate protection does not substantiate findings.

D:

Port admission policies reduce rogue infrastructure; the goal is evidence validation for whether a rogue AP bridges a protected wired segment. Prevention is not incident verification.

Question 636

A containment decision is required for this incident: A host sends large outbound bursts to a new autonomous system after midnight, but normal backup jobs also run then. What action constrains the incident at the affected point of control?

  1. Limit the suspect host's DNS egress to approved resolvers and isolate as needed
  2. Temporarily restrict the unapproved destination after validating business ownership
  3. Correlate process identity, destination ownership and backup schedule with network flow
  4. Investigate transferred data and remediate the access route if unauthorized

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Selective containment avoids terminating legitimate protected backup traffic; it protects the affected workflow while investigators continue resolving whether unusual egress is approved backup or exfiltration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Routing control interrupts covert outbound channels; it is meant to address whether DNS tunneling may carry encoded data, not initial containment or preservation for whether unusual egress is approved backup or exfiltration.

C:

Volume and timing alone cannot distinguish backup from theft; when judging whether unusual egress is approved backup or exfiltration, investigation alone does not control current conditions; this is instead evidence validation.

D:

Scope assessment is necessary even after the flow stops; for whether unusual egress is approved backup or exfiltration, corrective follow-through follows initial protection; initial containment or preservation remains necessary.

Question 637

The first task is to corroborate an alert. The case notes state: Packet captures are available but no sensor covers the segment between two data-center application tiers. What should the investigator examine to distinguish a substantiated finding from an assumption?

  1. Inspect network dependencies and documented safe-isolation procedures
  2. Test network visibility during red-team and incident exercises
  3. Enable scoped capture at an authorized aggregation or switch mirror point
  4. Map sensor placement against the observed inter-tier route

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A blind spot can explain why lateral traffic is absent from telemetry; this evidence is scoped to whether network monitoring sees suspected east-west movement, not a generic system-health reading.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing the wrong uplink could disrupt physical safety functions; the activity targets whether segmentation plans protect critical operational dependencies; evidence validation here concerns whether network monitoring sees suspected east-west movement.

B:

Coverage validation reveals gaps missed by perimeter-only monitoring; the goal is evidence validation for whether network monitoring sees suspected east-west movement. Prevention is not incident verification.

C:

Targeted visibility supports analysis without changing endpoint state; immediate protection does not substantiate findings in the decision about whether network monitoring sees suspected east-west movement.

Question 638

The affected workflow needs an integrity and access check following this event: An attacker uses a compromised switch management account to add a port mirror toward an unauthorized collector. What case-specific cleanup or recovery step establishes a trusted state?

  1. Restore trusted switch configuration and rotate administration credentials
  2. Use reviewed network-device configuration management and admin MFA
  3. Reissue trust only to inventoried compliant devices
  4. Disable the unauthorized mirror and restrict compromised management access

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Remediation must address both setup and access method; the owner can validate the correction against the evidence bearing on whether configuration change enabled traffic interception.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Change control exposes covert monitoring configuration; future hardening is not current-state recovery in the decision about whether configuration change enabled traffic interception.

C:

Recovery restores accountable device access; it is meant to address whether certificate trust still authorizes retired devices, not trusted restoration for whether configuration change enabled traffic interception.

D:

Stopping the copy path limits continued interception; when judging whether configuration change enabled traffic interception, temporary protection does not complete correction; this is instead initial containment or preservation.

Question 639

The initial scene or threat protection decision concerns the following: A warehouse barcode scanner connects to an open guest SSID rather than its protected operational WLAN. How should responders limit the damage while retaining the investigation trail?

  1. Review scanner WLAN profile, association records and transmitted application protocol
  2. Disable the unsafe network profile and isolate exposed scanner sessions
  3. Warn users and coordinate wireless containment under authorized procedures
  4. Reprovision the scanner onto the approved secured SSID and rotate affected credentials

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Configuration containment stops continued transmission over the wrong path; the protective decision should be recorded and its effect tested against whether client misassociation caused insecure traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An open wireless association changes confidentiality and access assumptions; for whether client misassociation caused insecure traffic, investigation alone does not control current conditions; initial containment or preservation remains necessary.

C:

Avoid indiscriminate jamming while protecting clients from the fake network; the activity targets whether an evil twin access point is impersonating the SSID; initial containment or preservation here concerns whether client misassociation caused insecure traffic.

D:

Restoring intended association must address secrets possibly exposed; corrective follow-through follows initial protection in the decision about whether client misassociation caused insecure traffic.

Question 640

A containment decision is required for this incident: Incident handlers lack an approved method to isolate network devices that manage safety-critical building controls. What action constrains the incident at the affected point of control?

  1. Coordinate with facilities before applying a narrow containment ACL
  2. Validate alternate management access and normal control flows before restoration
  3. Identify the actual transit control before applying an approved block
  4. Inspect network dependencies and documented safe-isolation procedures

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Risk-aware enforcement protects essential operation while limiting attacker reach; it protects the affected workflow while investigators continue resolving whether segmentation plans protect critical operational dependencies.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Recovery must verify the safety system remains functional; the case needs initial containment or preservation addressing whether segmentation plans protect critical operational dependencies; corrective follow-through follows initial protection.

C:

The response must interrupt the live packet path without damaging unrelated routes; it is meant to address whether emergency network enforcement points are current, not initial containment or preservation for whether segmentation plans protect critical operational dependencies.

D:

Removing the wrong uplink could disrupt physical safety functions; for whether segmentation plans protect critical operational dependencies, investigation alone does not control current conditions; initial containment or preservation remains necessary.

EC-Council Certified Incident Handler (212-89) Practice Tests