ECCouncil 312-38 (Certified Network Defender) Practice Test 8

Question 70

A zero-day patch might interrupt a critical line-of-business client. Which deployment method best balances urgency with operational assurance?

  1. Install immediately on every device without rollback planning
  2. Ignore the flaw until the next major OS release
  3. Pilot on representative endpoints, monitor compatibility, then stage broad deployment
  4. Remove application telemetry until updates finish

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Ring-based rollout reduces widespread failure risk while still enabling a time-bound response to a high-priority vulnerability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Uncontrolled fleet-wide release can cause an outage that staged testing and recovery options could reduce.

B:

An exposed critical defect may require timely action; indefinite delay is not a credible patch-risk strategy.

D:

Suppressing telemetry hides compatibility failures and security regressions during the very period they should be detected.

Question 71

Only software signed and approved by the organization should execute on sensitive Windows kiosks. Which control is most suited to strong application control?

  1. Windows Defender Application Control policy
  2. AppLocker rules configured only in audit mode
  3. AppLocker only for the browser while leaving arbitrary executables allowed
  4. Relying only on users to avoid unknown programs

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

WDAC can enforce code-integrity decisions for approved software and is designed for stronger application allowlisting scenarios.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Audit-only rules report disallowed execution but do not enforce a blocking policy for a kiosk that must run only approved code.

C:

A narrow rule for one application does not enforce a comprehensive execution allowlist for sensitive kiosks.

D:

Awareness helps, but it does not enforce the specified execution restriction against mistakes or malicious downloads.

Question 72

Domain login failures are increasing on one workstation. Which Windows Security log event ID is commonly associated with failed account logon attempts?

  1. Event ID 4624
  2. Event ID 1102
  3. Event ID 4625
  4. Event ID 4688

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Windows security auditing uses event 4625 for failed logons, with status and logon-type fields helping determine context.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This event commonly represents successful logon and cannot be treated as the primary failed-logon event.

B:

This event reports clearing of the Security audit log, a different activity that might indicate evidence tampering.

D:

When configured, this event records process creation rather than being the standard failed-logon record.

Question 73

Internal SMB shares must resist manipulation of file-sharing messages by an on-path attacker. Which host policy is directly relevant?

  1. Turn off authentication auditing for file servers
  2. Permit guest access to every network share
  3. Restrict SMB shares to an approved subnet without requiring signing
  4. Require SMB signing for supported client and server sessions

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

SMB signing provides integrity verification of protocol messages, reducing certain relay and tampering opportunities when required appropriately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Disabling logs reduces traceability while leaving the integrity of SMB requests unprotected.

B:

Guest access weakens authentication and does not add cryptographic protection to SMB traffic.

C:

Network access control narrows who can connect, but does not ensure integrity of SMB messages from an on-path attacker within an allowed route.

Question 74

Administrators use a high-privilege account to browse email on ordinary workstations, and one phishing infection exposes domain credentials. What design change best reduces this pathway?

  1. Use the domain administrator account for all daily tasks
  2. Allow every user to manage domain-wide Group Policy
  3. Turn off workstation EDR whenever an admin logs in
  4. Separate privileged identities and use hardened admin workstations

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Tiering administrative activity away from everyday browsing limits exposure of powerful credentials on less-trusted endpoints.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Broad routine use increases privileged credential exposure and makes compromise of one workstation more damaging.

B:

Wide delegation expands attack paths rather than isolating sensitive directory administration.

C:

Reducing endpoint visibility makes it easier for phishing malware to persist and steal administrative tokens.

Question 75

A local user can install unsigned drivers and modify system services on a Windows endpoint. What privilege principle should guide the next correction?

  1. Grant every local user Backup Operators rights
  2. Share one built-in administrator account among staff
  3. Remove unnecessary local administrator membership
  4. Set all operating-system directories to world-writable

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Least privilege limits the ability of routine accounts to change protected OS components, reducing persistence and privilege-abuse routes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Backup-related privileges can expose protected files and do not reduce the user's ability to misuse privileged capabilities.

B:

Shared high privilege weakens attribution and retains the unneeded authority that produced the risk.

D:

Broad writable access further erodes file integrity and can let lower-privilege users tamper with trusted code.

Question 76

A Linux operator needs to restart one service but should not receive an unrestricted root shell. Which configuration is appropriate?

  1. Give the operator the root password permanently
  2. Make the service executable world-writable
  3. A narrowly scoped sudoers rule for the required command
  4. Add the operator to every privileged group

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Sudo can delegate specific administrative commands with accountability, limiting the impact of a compromised operator credential.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Full root access exceeds the requested function and removes meaningful command-level privilege separation.

B:

Anyone could alter the service binary or script, creating an unnecessary persistence and code-execution risk.

D:

Broad group membership may expose many system controls instead of granting only the one needed service action.

Question 77

A file is owned by root and its project group must read it, while all other accounts must have no access. Which permission mode is appropriate for an ordinary non-executable file?

  1. 0640
  2. 0666
  3. 0600
  4. 0777

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The owner can read and write, the group can read, and others receive no permission, matching the specified access intent.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This grants read and write to all users, violating the need to prevent unrelated accounts from reading the file.

C:

Owner-only access denies the project group the read permission explicitly required in the question.

D:

World-writable and executable permissions exceed the stated requirements and expose the file to unrelated users.

Question 78

A new Linux process creates files that should not be readable by users outside its group by default. What configuration controls the initial permission bits removed at creation?

  1. The SSH known_hosts database
  2. The system resolver search domain
  3. The process umask
  4. The kernel routing table

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Umask masks permission bits from the creation mode, establishing restrictive defaults before any ACL or later permission changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Known-host entries verify remote host keys and do not set default access permissions for ordinary new files.

B:

DNS search domains affect hostname resolution, not the access modes assigned to newly created filesystem objects.

D:

Routes determine packet forwarding paths; file permissions are enforced by the filesystem access-control layer.

Question 79

An administrator manages Linux hosts by SSH from approved workstations and wants to avoid transmitting reusable account passwords. Which authentication approach best fits?

  1. Password authentication with rate limits and no SSH keys
  2. Public-key SSH authentication with protected private keys
  3. Telnet with terminal echo disabled
  4. Storing a universal root password in shell history
  5. Anonymous FTP authentication

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The server verifies a signature from a registered key without receiving the user's reusable account password during login.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Rate limits can impede guessing but do not remove reusable account password exposure from the administrative login workflow.

C:

Concealing typed characters on screen does not encrypt network traffic or prevent interception of Telnet credentials.

D:

A shared credential saved in history is easily exposed and does not replace password authentication with asymmetric keys.

E:

FTP guest access is unrelated to secure shell login and does not authenticate administrators to host accounts.

Question 80

A bastion host permits SSH access to named administrators but security policy forbids direct SSH login as root. Which sshd setting is central to enforcement?

  1. LogLevel QUIET
  2. PermitRootLogin no
  3. PasswordAuthentication yes
  4. X11Forwarding yes

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This directive disallows root authentication over SSH while allowing authorized administrators to authenticate individually and elevate afterward.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Reducing logging does not prevent privileged SSH authentication and could hide useful account access evidence.

C:

Enabling passwords changes one authentication method but does not specifically prohibit direct login by root.

D:

X11 forwarding controls graphical display tunneling, not whether the root account can authenticate directly via SSH.

Certified Network Defender (312-38) Practice Tests