ECCouncil 312-50v13 (Certified Ethical Hacker v13) Practice Test 15

Question 140

The asset owner wants to stop the verified condition recurring: An alleged technician promises a free security tune-up if a user grants remote desktop access, despite the employee never opening a support ticket. What is the most targeted improvement?

  1. Route support requests through authenticated ticket and remote-assistance workflows
  2. Train staff to end unsolicited calls and call back through official support numbers
  3. Disable unapproved removable media and offer safe found-device reporting
  4. Authenticate high-risk requests using agreed challenge and callback procedures

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Approved help-desk channels confirm personnel and tool provenance before users allow remote sessions or install agents. It targets the actual failure mode: quid pro quo uses a promised benefit or service in exchange for an action that grants access or discloses information.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Independent dial-back prevents a caller's claimed identity and spoofable phone number from authorizing sensitive account actions; the proposed improvement would make sense for vishing but not as the main fix here; the tested fault instead involves quid-pro-quo scam.

C:

Device controls block execution or access from unknown media while a reporting route avoids relying only on curiosity-resistant behavior; the specific root cause belongs to quid-pro-quo scam, beyond this control's intended scope.

D:

Process-based verification resists convincing synthesized audio without relying on human ability to recognize every manipulated recording; that change targets synthetic-voice impersonation, while the confirmed weakness involves quid-pro-quo scam.

Question 141

The post-assessment action plan cites this evidence: Malware is deleted from a Windows startup folder, yet a separate user-profile autostart registration launches the same payload immediately after each sign-in. Which corrective measure should be prioritized?

  1. Segment SMB management traffic and tier privileged credentials
  2. Monitor startup registry entries and restrict unauthorized changes
  3. Quote service executable paths and remove write access from service directories
  4. Use long managed service-account secrets and monitor unusual ticket requests

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Registry auditing and application allowlisting expose or prevent unexpected logon-time execution from unapproved paths. It targets the actual failure mode: run keys cause configured programs to launch during user logon; they can maintain user-context execution across reboots without replacing a system service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Restricting remote administration paths and separating host-specific administrative identities limits how far one stolen credential can travel; the measure addresses a different trust boundary from the registry Run-key persistence finding.

C:

Correct quoting removes ambiguity in executable selection, while hardened filesystem ACLs block unauthorized replacement or placement of executables; its security benefit applies principally to unquoted service path abuse, not the defect described; the tested fault instead involves registry Run-key persistence.

D:

Strong rotated service credentials resist offline guesses, and ticket-request telemetry can reveal abnormal targeting of many service principals; the exposure here is registry Run-key persistence, which calls for another protective mechanism.

Question 142

In a permitted test environment, the analyst records: A software update package includes a signature that recipients can verify using the publisher's public key, without receiving the signing private key. What is the most precise classification?

  1. AES-GCM nonce reuse
  2. S-MIME encrypted email
  3. RSA-OAEP encryption
  4. Digital signature verification

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Digital signatures use private-key operations for authenticity and integrity verification by corresponding public keys; confidentiality is a separate service. This is why teams should protect signing private keys and verify signatures before installation; private-key custody preserves publisher identity and signature validation prevents unapproved package modification from appearing legitimate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

GCM is an authenticated-encryption mode whose security depends on nonce uniqueness for a given key; reuse can undermine confidentiality and authentication; the scenario identifies digital signature verification, which has a different triggering condition.

B:

S-MIME can encrypt message content to recipients' public keys and provide digital signatures; intermediate mail transport need not see message plaintext; the defining symptom in the prompt is associated with digital signature verification instead.

C:

RSA-OAEP uses randomized asymmetric encryption padding suitable for wrapping short secrets, not for bulk data encryption at high throughput; the events given do not establish this behavior but do support digital signature verification.

Question 143

The approved test uncovered this weakness: An issuing authority has revoked an unexpired certificate after key compromise, yet the service continues presenting it and clients need a status-validation policy. Which control would reduce the relevant exposure without relying on obscurity?

  1. Rotate and version keys while retaining controlled historical decryption access
  2. Use appropriate certificate status checking and rapid key replacement
  3. Manage recipient certificates and private keys for encrypted S-MIME messages
  4. Enforce full-disk encryption with secure boot and recovery-key controls

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Revocation checking and renewed credentials reduce reliance on a key that the issuer has declared untrustworthy before scheduled expiry. The specific weakness being corrected is that online Certificate Status Protocol can report a certificate's revocation status through an issuer-designated responder; expiration dates alone do not reveal early revocation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Key lifecycle management limits future use of compromised material without inadvertently making existing protected records unrecoverable; that change targets cryptographic key rotation, while the confirmed weakness involves OCSP revocation lookup.

C:

Verified certificates and sound key custody enable intended recipients to decrypt content while supporting sender authenticity when messages are signed; the measure addresses a different trust boundary from the OCSP revocation lookup finding.

D:

At-rest encryption reduces exposure after physical theft, while platform integrity and key escrow govern startup trust and legitimate recovery; the required correction concerns OCSP revocation lookup, so this is not the targeted control.

Question 144

A security engineer examines the following result: Endpoints suddenly rewrite large numbers of user documents into unreadable ciphertext and display demands for payment. Which described weakness or technique does it demonstrate?

  1. Fileless memory execution
  2. Trojanized utility
  3. Command-and-control beacon
  4. Ransomware encryption activity

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Ransomware denies access to data, commonly through encryption, to pressure victims into paying; network share reachability can extend damage. The control that addresses this failure path is to keep isolated immutable backups and restrict bulk file-write privileges; recoverable backup copies and limited write access reduce operational leverage even if an endpoint successfully encrypts its reachable files.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Fileless malware favors memory and legitimate interpreters or system tools rather than installing a traditional standalone binary on disk; the events given do not establish this behavior but do support ransomware encryption activity.

B:

A Trojan presents itself as a desirable or harmless program while containing malicious behavior; deception is central, not automatic self-replication; the reported conditions are characteristic of ransomware encryption activity, not that path.

C:

Beaconing is periodic communication to a command-and-control service; stable intervals and destinations may indicate task polling or status reporting; those prerequisites differ from the ransomware encryption activity behavior in the record.

Question 145

A controlled investigation yields this observation: A payment confirmation page can be embedded inside an unrelated site's transparent frame, misleading visitors about the button they click. How should the team identify the underlying behavior?

  1. Clickjacking
  2. Cross-site request forgery
  3. DOM-based cross-site scripting
  4. Reflected cross-site scripting

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Clickjacking uses deceptive framing and visual overlay to cause actions on a real site when users think they are interacting with something else. On affected systems, it is useful to apply Content-Security-Policy frame-ancestors restrictions; a framing policy lets browsers prevent unauthorized embedding of sensitive pages, removing the overlay surface used in this deception.

Incorrect Answers

B:

CSRF exploits automatic credential attachment on cross-site requests; it does not require the attacker to read the victim's authenticated response; those prerequisites differ from the clickjacking behavior in the record.

C:

DOM XSS occurs when client-side JavaScript moves untrusted data into a dangerous DOM sink; the server response may be static; this would classify another type of evidence, whereas the actual finding shows clickjacking.

D:

Reflected XSS returns unsafely embedded input in the immediate server response; the payload does not need to be permanently stored by the application; the relevant mechanism in the observed workflow is clickjacking instead.

Question 146

A controlled investigation yields this observation: A company’s internet-facing addresses are spread across multiple routed prefixes associated with its ASN and transit partners. How should the team identify the underlying behavior?

  1. Search engine indexing
  2. Autonomous system mapping
  3. Certificate transparency discovery
  4. Public document metadata

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

BGP autonomous-system data relates network owners to announced IP prefixes; it helps distinguish public network footprint from individual website names. The appropriate hardening measure is to reconcile announced prefixes with authorized asset and provider inventories, since ASN mapping reveals broad exposure, but network ownership is not permission to scan third-party hosted systems without explicit scope approval.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Search-engine caches and indexes can retain discoverable content even after an origin page changes; removing a live link alone does not ensure deindexing; those prerequisites differ from the autonomous system mapping behavior in the record.

C:

Certificate transparency logs are public issuance records; hostnames in certificate subject alternative names may reveal externally relevant assets without probing the hosts; the relevant mechanism in the observed workflow is autonomous system mapping instead.

D:

Document metadata can carry author names, revision details, software identifiers, and filesystem paths omitted from the visible body; those effects are not the autonomous system mapping pattern evidenced by the assessment.

Question 147

An authorized engagement found two independent issues. Finding one: An authenticated user visits an unrelated website that silently submits a state-changing form to a trusted application using the user's cookies. Finding two: A customer's session value appears in a copied support URL and reaches a third-party analytics endpoint as part of the referring address when the link is followed. Which TWO mechanisms explain the respective findings? Choose TWO.

  1. SameSite cookie behavior
  2. Session identifier in URL
  3. CSRF request forgery
  4. Idle session timeout
  5. XSS-mediated cookie theft

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

URL-carried session identifiers leak through logs, referrers, history, and copied links more readily than properly protected cookies; it is separately evidenced in the task, rather than being interchangeable with CSRF request forgery.

C:

CSRF exploits ambient browser authentication to induce unwanted actions; the adversary does not necessarily learn or steal the session identifier; its indicators are tied to the CSRF request forgery record, not to the finding involving session identifier in URL.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SameSite controls when browsers attach cookies to cross-site requests; Strict and Lax differ in their treatment of navigation and request methods; this would classify another type of evidence, whereas the actual finding shows CSRF request forgery, session identifier in URL.

D:

Idle timeout invalidates a session after inactivity; it addresses unattended access and exposure from abandoned authenticated browsers; the case demonstrates CSRF request forgery, session identifier in URL rather than the alternate mechanism.

E:

Cross-site scripting can expose session cookies when HttpOnly is absent; the attacker obtains the bearer token rather than learning the account password; the observed evidence concerns CSRF request forgery, session identifier in URL instead.

Question 148

The post-assessment action plan cites this evidence: A contractor returns their BYOD device at offboarding, but HR must remove corporate work material without deleting the employee's personal photographs or messages. Which corrective measure should be prioritized?

  1. Enforce managed app sources and mobile threat defense
  2. Review requested permissions and block unnecessary sensitive grants
  3. Protect release signing keys and verify signatures in the deployment pipeline
  4. Use managed-profile selective wipe for departing BYOD employees

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Removing organization-managed accounts and content preserves legitimate corporate control without unnecessarily erasing personal data. The technical basis for the recommendation is that mobile device management can distinguish corporate-managed data from personal content when supported enrollment and separation features are used.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Trusted distribution, signature checks, and endpoint policy reduce installation of repackaged applications from uncontrolled sites; it would improve sideloaded APK risk, not directly correct the reported MDM selective wipe issue.

B:

Feature-based permission review limits unintended data collection and reduces blast radius when an app misbehaves; the measure addresses a different trust boundary from the MDM selective wipe finding.

C:

Secure key custody preserves update continuity and makes unauthorized package substitution harder to distribute as a trusted upgrade; the required correction concerns MDM selective wipe, so this is not the targeted control.

Question 149

The tester submits the following verified finding: A tester queries port 111 and obtains program numbers associated with network services on a Unix host. Which technique or condition is involved?

  1. DNS SRV discovery
  2. Rpcbind service inventory
  3. SMB share enumeration
  4. RPC endpoint mapper

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Rpcbind maps ONC RPC program identifiers to network addresses or ports, providing service discovery without directly enumerating file content. The control that addresses this failure path is to restrict rpcbind access to networks that need RPC services; management network controls suppress unnecessary program enumeration and narrow exposure of related RPC daemons.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS SRV records publish the hostname and port of a service so clients can find it; LDAP and Kerberos discovery commonly rely on them; those effects are not the rpcbind service inventory pattern evidenced by the assessment.

C:

SMB enumeration obtains resource details such as shares and access configuration after network discovery; an open port alone does not supply these objects; the observed evidence concerns rpcbind service inventory instead.

D:

RPC endpoint mapping identifies dynamic service endpoints and interface identifiers; it can reveal reachable management surfaces beyond one static port; the test record points specifically to rpcbind service inventory, not this separate mechanism.

Question 150

A follow-up review must reduce the risk revealed here: An API gateway keeps accepting obsolete handshake versions for old partners, and the security team must remove downgrade paths rather than merely advertising a modern preferred version. Which defensive measure fits the specific failure mode?

  1. Enforce full-disk encryption with secure boot and recovery-key controls
  2. Enforce modern minimum TLS versions and remove unsafe fallback
  3. Guarantee unique nonces per encryption key and rotate affected keys
  4. Authenticate ephemeral key exchange with validated peer certificates

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Strong negotiation policy keeps a transient handshake failure from authorizing obsolete protocol use. The specific weakness being corrected is that protocol downgrade attacks exploit permissive fallback and weak minimum-version policy to force connections onto weaker negotiated security.

Incorrect Answers

A:

At-rest encryption reduces exposure after physical theft, while platform integrity and key escrow govern startup trust and legitimate recovery; the specific root cause belongs to TLS downgrade weakness, beyond this control's intended scope.

C:

Nonce-generation discipline protects the authentication construction, while key rotation limits exposure after uniqueness guarantees have failed; it would improve AES-GCM nonce reuse, not directly correct the reported TLS downgrade weakness issue.

D:

Certificate verification prevents man-in-the-middle key substitution while ephemeral elliptic-curve exchange supports fresh traffic keys; the measure addresses a different trust boundary from the TLS downgrade weakness finding.

Certified Ethical Hacker v13 (312-50v13) Practice Tests