ECCouncil 312-50v13 (Certified Ethical Hacker v13) Practice Test 33

Question 320

In a permitted test environment, the analyst records: A scanner identifies missing local patches only when supplied with an approved read-only account on the host. What is the most precise classification?

  1. CVE identifier
  2. Authenticated vulnerability scan
  3. Configuration benchmark assessment
  4. Unauthenticated assessment

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Credentialed scanning examines installed versions, configurations, and local patch state; network-only checks may miss software with no exposed banner. A practical defensive response is to provide tightly scoped scanner credentials and rotate them after use; a controlled identity improves coverage while limiting the impact if stored assessment credentials are leaked or misused.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A CVE is a standardized identifier for a disclosed vulnerability; it is not itself a severity score, exploit proof, or patch confirmation; the test record points specifically to authenticated vulnerability scan, not this separate mechanism.

C:

Configuration assessment compares deployed settings to a defined security benchmark; vulnerability risk can result from misconfiguration without a missing software update; the scenario identifies authenticated vulnerability scan, which has a different triggering condition.

D:

Unauthenticated scanning assesses exposed services and observable configuration from a chosen network vantage point, not hidden local state; the defining symptom in the prompt is associated with authenticated vulnerability scan instead.

Question 321

Operations asks for a practical correction after the test found: A mail gateway answers recipient-verification commands for arbitrary addresses, helping unauthenticated internet clients distinguish valid staff mailboxes. What should the security team recommend?

  1. Restrict share listing and access through SMB permissions and segmentation
  2. Constrain NFS exports to intended clients with least-privilege mappings
  3. Review reverse zone permissions and publicly visible PTR values
  4. Disable external VRFY responses or normalize recipient disclosure

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Reducing account-validity feedback limits mailbox harvesting without blocking ordinary SMTP acceptance and queued delivery. This matters for the observed attack path because SMTP VRFY can reveal recipient validity when a mail server exposes user verification behavior; not every mail server implements it or allows it externally.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Share and NTFS permissions plus network isolation reduce unauthorized resource browsing even when SMB must remain available to staff; the measure addresses a different trust boundary from the SMTP VRFY enumeration finding.

B:

Host restrictions, secure versions, and root squashing where appropriate reduce remote mounting and privilege-mapping abuse; the required correction concerns SMTP VRFY enumeration, so this is not the targeted control.

C:

Administrative naming policies limit unintended disclosure, though reverse DNS changes do not remove reachable hosts or vulnerable applications; its security benefit applies principally to PTR record enumeration, not the defect described; the tested fault instead involves SMTP VRFY enumeration.

Question 322

A defender analyzing an approved exercise sees this pattern: An IDS sees an established TLS session and traffic volumes but cannot read the application commands carried inside the encrypted payload. Which mechanism is most consistent with it?

  1. Signature-based detection
  2. Host-based intrusion detection
  3. Passive network IDS
  4. Encrypted traffic blind spot

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Network encryption preserves content confidentiality from passive inspection points; metadata remains visible but payload signatures may be unavailable. The control that addresses this failure path is to use approved endpoint telemetry or controlled TLS inspection when justified; instrumenting the endpoint or authorized termination point recovers necessary context without assuming a passive sensor can decrypt arbitrary TLS.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Signature detection matches established indicators and patterns; changed encodings or previously unseen payloads may evade exact content matches; the scenario identifies encrypted traffic blind spot, which has a different triggering condition.

B:

HIDS examines events on the host such as files, processes, logs, and configuration, complementing network packet inspection; the defining symptom in the prompt is associated with encrypted traffic blind spot instead.

C:

A passive NIDS observes copies of traffic and emits alerts, normally lacking a direct inline ability to drop the original packets; the events given do not establish this behavior but do support encrypted traffic blind spot.

Question 323

A production hardening ticket was raised after this confirmed observation: After a customer credential-table leak, an attacker can run password guesses rapidly because the stored values were produced with a fast general-purpose digest. Which action best targets the risk?

  1. Enforce full-disk encryption with secure boot and recovery-key controls
  2. Store salted passwords using tuned Argon2id parameters
  3. Prefer TLS cipher suites using ephemeral ECDHE key exchange
  4. Use authenticated encryption and uniform decryption error behavior

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unique salts defeat precomputed matches and memory-hard derivation increases the cost of large-scale cracking of leaked verifiers. It directly addresses this mechanism: password hashing should deliberately impose computational and memory cost; Argon2id is designed to slow offline guessing better than a fast digest alone.

Incorrect Answers

A:

At-rest encryption reduces exposure after physical theft, while platform integrity and key escrow govern startup trust and legitimate recovery; that change targets full-disk encryption boundary, while the confirmed weakness involves argon2id password storage.

C:

Fresh per-session key material limits retrospective exposure, provided ephemeral secrets were not separately compromised or logged; the measure addresses a different trust boundary from the argon2id password storage finding.

D:

AEAD validation detects tampering before plaintext processing, and consistent failures avoid leaking padding validity to a remote caller; the required correction concerns argon2id password storage, so this is not the targeted control.

Question 324

An incident analyst is asked to classify this observed activity: A malicious comment is saved to the database and later executes in browsers of everyone who views the affected discussion thread. Which concept is the closest match?

  1. Cross-site request forgery
  2. Reflected cross-site scripting
  3. Stored cross-site scripting
  4. DOM-based cross-site scripting

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Stored XSS persists attacker-controlled content server-side and delivers it to later viewers through unsafe rendering. A targeted mitigation is to sanitize allowed rich content and use output encoding on display; validation and rendering safeguards stop saved comments from becoming active scripts when retrieved by other users.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CSRF exploits automatic credential attachment on cross-site requests; it does not require the attacker to read the victim's authenticated response; the events given do not establish this behavior but do support stored cross-site scripting.

B:

Reflected XSS returns unsafely embedded input in the immediate server response; the payload does not need to be permanently stored by the application; the reported conditions are characteristic of stored cross-site scripting, not that path.

D:

DOM XSS occurs when client-side JavaScript moves untrusted data into a dangerous DOM sink; the server response may be static; this would classify another type of evidence, whereas the actual finding shows stored cross-site scripting.

Question 325

During a documented lab review, an analyst notes: A mobile application's custom URL handler accepts an external link that opens an internal sensitive activity with unvalidated arguments. What mechanism should be recorded?

  1. Mobile overlay credential theft
  2. Android exported component
  3. Cleartext mobile API traffic
  4. Deep-link validation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Deep links create cross-application entry points; intent-filter matching does not itself authorize the requested operation or validate untrusted parameters. To constrain the corresponding risk, defenders should validate deep-link input and enforce authorization inside target activities; server-side or in-app security checks stop external URLs from bypassing workflow restrictions through a trusted-looking app route.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Overlay attacks abuse user-interface permissions or accessibility features to impersonate legitimate screens and collect credentials; the reported conditions are characteristic of deep-link validation, not that path.

B:

Exported Android components are accessible across app boundaries subject to permissions; missing checks can turn internal functionality into an external attack surface; those prerequisites differ from the deep-link validation behavior in the record.

C:

Cleartext traffic exposes credentials and session data to local network observers or malicious intermediaries because confidentiality and server authentication are absent; this would classify another type of evidence, whereas the actual finding shows deep-link validation.

Question 326

The post-assessment action plan cites this evidence: Legacy Modbus endpoints accept sensitive register writes from arbitrary VLANs because no protocol-aware filtering distinguishes approved engineering stations from general clients. Which corrective measure should be prioritized?

  1. Disable unnecessary UPnP mapping or strictly constrain authorized clients
  2. Isolate Modbus endpoints and restrict write-function traffic
  3. Segment historian access and enforce application-specific read permissions
  4. Provision unique device certificates and lifecycle-aware revocation

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Industrial firewalls and protocol-aware rules narrow which engineering stations can send sensitive register changes. This matters for the observed attack path because traditional Modbus TCP lacks native cryptographic client authentication and encryption, so security often depends on network boundaries and compensating controls.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Explicit port-forwarding policy prevents untrusted devices from silently publishing internal services through the edge gateway; the required correction concerns Modbus TCP trust weakness, so this is not the targeted control.

C:

Controlled paths preserve authorized reporting while reducing broad visibility into industrial telemetry and possible pivot routes; the exposure here is Modbus TCP trust weakness, which calls for another protective mechanism.

D:

Per-device credentials support accurate inventory, isolation, and renewal when only one endpoint is lost or retired; the action is aimed at shared device identity; it leaves the central Modbus TCP trust weakness condition unresolved.

Question 327

During a documented lab review, an analyst notes: After an employee is promoted to an elevated role, the application retains an old low-privilege session token without reissuing it. What mechanism should be recorded?

  1. Unrevoked logout token
  2. Session identifier in URL
  3. XSS-mediated cookie theft
  4. Session rotation on privilege change

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Privilege transitions should establish a fresh session boundary because stale bearer tokens can otherwise inherit newly elevated rights unexpectedly. The appropriate hardening measure is to rotate the session token when authentication strength or privilege level changes, since regeneration limits fixation and stale-token reuse at the point where session authority increases.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A logout operation that only clears client storage may leave a server-side session valid, permitting reuse of an earlier stolen bearer token; this would classify another type of evidence, whereas the actual finding shows session rotation on privilege change.

B:

URL-carried session identifiers leak through logs, referrers, history, and copied links more readily than properly protected cookies; the relevant mechanism in the observed workflow is session rotation on privilege change instead.

C:

Cross-site scripting can expose session cookies when HttpOnly is absent; the attacker obtains the bearer token rather than learning the account password; those effects are not the session rotation on privilege change pattern evidenced by the assessment.

Question 328

Operations asks for a practical correction after the test found: An authenticated browser loads a third-party page that can initiate state-changing requests to the intranet application with the user's cookies attached automatically. What should the security team recommend?

  1. Invalidate server-side sessions and associated refresh tokens on logout
  2. Apply appropriate SameSite settings and separate anti-CSRF checks
  3. Set HttpOnly on session cookies and remediate injection weaknesses
  4. Mark authentication cookies Secure and require HTTPS throughout the site

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cookie restrictions reduce ambient authority on cross-site requests, while CSRF tokens still protect state-changing actions and compatibility cases. It directly addresses this mechanism: SameSite controls when browsers attach cookies to cross-site requests; Strict and Lax differ in their treatment of navigation and request methods.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Backend revocation removes authorization from copies of the credential that exist outside the browser being logged out; it would improve unrevoked logout token, not directly correct the reported SameSite cookie behavior issue.

C:

The attribute narrows token access from injected scripts but does not itself prevent those scripts from making same-origin requests; the required correction concerns SameSite cookie behavior, so this is not the targeted control.

D:

Transport restrictions and HTTPS redirect policy help prevent bearer tokens from leaking on non-TLS connections; its security benefit applies principally to secure cookie attribute, not the defect described; the tested fault instead involves SameSite cookie behavior.

Question 329

Operations asks for a practical correction after the test found: A visitor without a pass relies on an employee holding open a restricted laboratory entrance while everyone else is busy moving equipment. What should the security team recommend?

  1. Authenticate high-risk requests using agreed challenge and callback procedures
  2. Use controlled visitor escort and anti-tailgating procedures
  3. Verify sensitive requests through a separate trusted communication channel
  4. Require consistent identity verification regardless of urgency or role claims

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Individual access checks and visitor handling prevent one person's authorized badge from implicitly admitting an unverified companion. The safeguard responds to the underlying issue: tailgating gains physical access by following someone legitimately admitted, exploiting social pressure to hold doors instead of defeating badge technology.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Process-based verification resists convincing synthesized audio without relying on human ability to recognize every manipulated recording; the action is aimed at synthetic-voice impersonation; it leaves the central tailgating condition unresolved.

C:

Independent confirmation prevents project-specific impersonation from being treated as proof that an email request was authorized; the tested weakness is tailgating, not the spear phishing configuration addressed here.

D:

Documented verification steps stop plausible stories from replacing evidence of a requester's authority; that safeguard does not directly close the tailgating route highlighted by the test.

Question 330

An incident analyst is asked to classify this observed activity: A legacy workstation asks the subnet to resolve a NetBIOS name and a malicious node replies as the requested resource. Which concept is the closest match?

  1. LLMNR name-resolution poisoning
  2. Rogue DHCP server
  3. NetBIOS name-service spoofing
  4. ARP cache poisoning

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

NetBIOS name-service broadcasts can be answered by untrusted local peers when stronger authenticated name resolution is unavailable. A targeted mitigation is to disable legacy broadcast name resolution where business applications permit; reducing NBNS dependence prevents unauthenticated local responses from steering clients toward an impersonated file or authentication service.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Link-Local Multicast Name Resolution can resolve names on the local segment without ordinary DNS; spoofed responses can redirect clients to hostile listeners; the case demonstrates NetBIOS name-service spoofing rather than the alternate mechanism.

B:

Rogue DHCP replies can provide malicious network settings that redirect subsequent name resolution and traffic even without changing host applications; the observed evidence concerns NetBIOS name-service spoofing instead.

D:

ARP poisoning forges address-resolution associations on a local broadcast domain, potentially redirecting or intercepting traffic through an adversary-controlled interface; that behavior is distinct from the NetBIOS name-service spoofing finding being classified.

Certified Ethical Hacker v13 (312-50v13) Practice Tests