ECCouncil 312-50v13 (Certified Ethical Hacker v13) Practice Test 60

Question 590

An incident analyst is asked to classify this observed activity: A browser sends an authentication cookie during an ordinary unencrypted HTTP request to an origin that also serves HTTPS. Which concept is the closest match?

  1. TLS stripping
  2. HttpOnly cookie attribute
  3. SameSite cookie behavior
  4. Secure cookie attribute

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The Secure attribute instructs browsers to transmit that cookie only over secure channels, reducing exposure during accidental plaintext requests. On affected systems, it is useful to mark authentication cookies Secure and require HTTPS throughout the site; transport restrictions and HTTPS redirect policy help prevent bearer tokens from leaking on non-TLS connections.

Incorrect Answers

A:

TLS stripping exploits an insecure initial navigation or downgrade path so subsequent requests use plaintext rather than the expected protected connection; those prerequisites differ from the secure cookie attribute behavior in the record.

B:

HttpOnly prevents browser JavaScript from reading a cookie, but the browser can still attach it to legitimate HTTP requests; this would classify another type of evidence, whereas the actual finding shows secure cookie attribute.

C:

SameSite controls when browsers attach cookies to cross-site requests; Strict and Lax differ in their treatment of navigation and request methods; the relevant mechanism in the observed workflow is secure cookie attribute instead.

Question 591

A controlled investigation yields this observation: An app saves a long-lived API secret in a plaintext preference file readable after a device backup is extracted. How should the team identify the underlying behavior?

  1. Mobile overlay credential theft
  2. Excessive mobile permissions
  3. Certificate pinning limitations
  4. Insecure mobile key storage

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Application secrets stored in ordinary plaintext files can be exposed through backup, debugging, or device compromise, independent of network TLS. For a production safeguard, operators can use platform keystores and avoid embedding reusable high-value secrets; hardware-backed or OS-protected keys reduce straightforward extraction while server-managed short-lived tokens limit exposure if a client is lost.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Overlay attacks abuse user-interface permissions or accessibility features to impersonate legitimate screens and collect credentials; this would classify another type of evidence, whereas the actual finding shows insecure mobile key storage.

B:

Overprivileged mobile apps expand the information available after compromise or abuse; the platform permission model should track actual features; the relevant mechanism in the observed workflow is insecure mobile key storage instead.

C:

Certificate pinning can reduce trust in unexpected certificate authorities, but poorly planned rotation or backup pins may cause outages; those effects are not the insecure mobile key storage pattern evidenced by the assessment.

Question 592

The approved test uncovered this weakness: A perimeter-only vulnerability review omits unpatched virtual machines that have no internet-facing listeners, and the asset owner mistakes that omission for a clean software inventory. Which control would reduce the relevant exposure without relying on obscurity?

  1. Apply explicit target allowlists and test exclusions before execution
  2. Correct hardening drift and retest benchmark controls
  3. Map CVEs to affected versions and verified remediation advisories
  4. Correlate external results with internal authenticated assessments

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Multiple vantage points reveal exposures that an internet-facing scanner cannot see, preventing unsupported conclusions from a clean outside report. This matters for the observed attack path because a false negative means a real weakness is not reported; reachability constraints or missing credentials can hide vulnerable components.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enforced scope controls keep sensitive or prohibited assets outside the scan regardless of how network ranges are discovered; it would improve assessment exclusions, not directly correct the reported false-negative scan issue.

B:

Turning off unnecessary services and tightening audit policies addresses exposure that patch installation alone cannot remove; the measure addresses a different trust boundary from the false-negative scan finding.

C:

Version matching and vendor guidance establish whether an asset is exposed and which update or workaround addresses that vulnerability; the required correction concerns false-negative scan, so this is not the targeted control.

Question 593

Investigators compare two verified findings. First: A publicly shared backup permits anyone with its URL to read customer records, even though the data was neither changed nor deleted. Second: An incident review correlates observed persistence, credential access, and remote service execution against a standardized matrix of adversary tactics and techniques, rather than grouping everything by a single virus name. Select TWO mechanisms directly represented here.

  1. MITRE ATT&CK technique mapping
  2. Prompt injection of an assessment assistant
  3. Integrity
  4. Confidentiality
  5. Availability

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

MITRE ATT&CK organizes observed tactics and techniques across attack stages; mapping behavior supports detection coverage and investigation without requiring attribution to a particular actor; its indicators are tied to the MITRE ATT&CK technique mapping record, not to the finding involving confidentiality.

D:

Confidentiality protects information against unauthorized disclosure; a system can preserve availability and integrity while still failing to restrict who reads sensitive material; it is separately evidenced in the task, rather than being interchangeable with MITRE ATT&CK technique mapping.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Prompt injection places adversarial instructions inside lower-trust material that a language model reads as data; the trust boundary fails if that text gains control authority; the case demonstrates confidentiality, MITRE ATT&CK technique mapping rather than the alternate mechanism.

C:

Integrity concerns whether data remains accurate and protected against unauthorized modification; silent record changes undermine trust without necessarily reducing system uptime; the observed evidence concerns confidentiality, MITRE ATT&CK technique mapping instead.

E:

Availability means authorized users can reach required services when needed; exhausted capacity can violate this property even without evidence of data theft or corruption; that behavior is distinct from the confidentiality, MITRE ATT&CK technique mapping finding being classified.

Question 594

Consider this event from a scoped security assessment: A rule fires on a known malicious byte pattern but misses a newly packed variant of the same malicious behavior. Which explanation fits the observed evidence?

  1. Inline network IPS
  2. Encrypted traffic blind spot
  3. Anomaly-based detection
  4. Signature-based detection

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Signature detection matches established indicators and patterns; changed encodings or previously unseen payloads may evade exact content matches. The appropriate hardening measure is to combine maintained signatures with behavior and anomaly analytics, since multiple detection approaches address known sequences and unfamiliar variants rather than assuming one byte pattern covers every mutation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An inline IPS can block or reset traffic on the path while applying detection logic; availability design must consider false positives and bypass behavior; the case demonstrates signature-based detection rather than the alternate mechanism.

B:

Network encryption preserves content confidentiality from passive inspection points; metadata remains visible but payload signatures may be unavailable; the observed evidence concerns signature-based detection instead.

C:

Anomaly detection compares events with baseline or statistical expectations; legitimate workload shifts can also trigger alerts and need tuning; the test record points specifically to signature-based detection, not this separate mechanism.

Question 595

The tester submits the following verified finding: A wireless client reinstalling an already-used key during handshake retransmission causes nonce reuse under affected protocol implementations. Which technique or condition is involved?

  1. WPS PIN weakness
  2. KRACK handshake implementation
  3. WPA2-Personal weak passphrase
  4. WPA3-SAE authentication

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Key reinstallation attacks exploit certain four-way-handshake implementation flaws, not the mere existence of a strong WPA2 passphrase. To constrain the corresponding risk, defenders should patch wireless clients and access points against key reinstallation flaws; updated handshake handling prevents unsafe key reinstallation while preserving the normal protocol operation needed for secure association.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Some WPS PIN implementations expose an effectively split PIN validation process and weak rate controls, making this enrollment method attackable; the observed evidence concerns KRACK handshake implementation instead.

C:

WPA2-Personal derives key material from a shared passphrase, so weak secrets can be tested against a captured handshake outside the network; that behavior is distinct from the KRACK handshake implementation finding being classified.

D:

WPA3-Personal uses SAE rather than the WPA2-Personal PSK handshake, improving resistance to passive offline password guessing under proper implementation; the scenario identifies KRACK handshake implementation, which has a different triggering condition.

Question 596

The owner asks for a durable safeguard against the issue demonstrated here: The business is moving its authoritative domain registration to a new registrar and must ensure contact and ownership data remain accurate without publishing unnecessary personal details. What is the best response?

  1. Use registration-data privacy and keep administrative contacts current
  2. Apply publication review guidance to job ads and employee profiles
  3. Reduce public management exposure and sanitize unnecessary service banners
  4. Move toward enforced DMARC after validating legitimate mail streams

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Redaction limits unnecessary personal exposure while maintained registration contacts preserve legitimate domain recovery and operational notifications. This matters for the observed attack path because RDAP and registration services provide structured domain registration metadata; privacy services and registry policy may redact personal contact fields.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Limiting operational detail in public posts reduces organizational fingerprinting without relying on employees to stop using professional networks; the proposed improvement would make sense for social media role intelligence but not as the main fix here; the tested fault instead involves registration data lookup.

C:

Network access rules address the real risk, while suppressing detailed version disclosure reduces effortless targeting based on indexed fingerprints; the specific root cause belongs to registration data lookup, beyond this control's intended scope.

D:

Using aligned SPF or DKIM and an enforcement policy can reduce direct-domain spoofing while avoiding disruption to legitimate third-party senders; that change targets DMARC policy exposure, while the confirmed weakness involves registration data lookup.

Question 597

As part of a sanctioned audit, a reviewer observes: A legacy file server allows anonymous clients to enumerate account or share information without authenticated credentials. Which behavior is illustrated?

  1. DNS zone transfer
  2. SMB null-session exposure
  3. SMB share enumeration
  4. NTP control-query exposure
  5. Anonymous LDAP bind
  6. BGP neighbor disclosure

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An SMB null session may expose information on misconfigured or older systems where anonymous access policy is overly permissive. The control that addresses this failure path is to disable anonymous enumeration and review guest or null-session policies; explicitly limiting unauthenticated SMB and RPC access prevents account and share disclosure while preserving required authenticated service use.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Zone transfer replicates DNS records between authorized servers; permissive AXFR access can reveal extensive hostnames and address relationships; that behavior is distinct from the SMB null-session exposure finding being classified.

C:

SMB enumeration obtains resource details such as shares and access configuration after network discovery; an open port alone does not supply these objects; the defining symptom in the prompt is associated with SMB null-session exposure instead.

D:

Historical NTP monitoring commands exposed association or client information on some versions; modern implementations commonly restrict or remove these behaviors; the events given do not establish this behavior but do support SMB null-session exposure.

E:

Anonymous bind behavior depends on directory configuration; exposing membership attributes enables reconnaissance without granting an application login; the reported conditions are characteristic of SMB null-session exposure, not that path.

F:

BGP peer and route information can expose network topology and transit relationships, but route visibility does not confer access to router control functions; those prerequisites differ from the SMB null-session exposure behavior in the record.

Question 598

The owner asks for a durable safeguard against the issue demonstrated here: During a cloud engagement, a scan queue begins including an external supplier's IP range discovered through redirects, even though the signed authorization covers only the customer's tenant. What is the best response?

  1. Obtain a signed scope amendment before touching the payment endpoint
  2. Prioritize findings using asset criticality and exploitability context
  3. Layer MFA, authorization boundaries, monitoring, and network segmentation
  4. Pause affected activity and use the escalation contact in the rules of engagement

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A documented scope change protects the client and tester, aligns approval with the new asset, and avoids treating a verbal request as blanket consent. This matters for the observed attack path because the signed rules of engagement define permitted assets, methods, windows, contacts, and stop conditions; informal requests cannot safely supersede that documented authorization boundary.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Business impact and reachable attack paths change expected loss, so remediation scheduling should not be based solely on the generic vulnerability score; the tested weakness is written rules of engagement, not the risk assessment configuration addressed here.

C:

Independent controls constrain credential misuse, limit lateral exposure, and generate alerts even when endpoint protection or one authentication factor is bypassed; that safeguard does not directly close the written rules of engagement route highlighted by the test.

D:

Following the predefined incident path protects production operations and preserves evidence instead of treating a test schedule as permission to continue damage; the proposed improvement would make sense for incident stop condition but not as the main fix here; the tested fault instead involves written rules of engagement.

Question 599

In a permitted test environment, the analyst records: An inventory engine has to match a vulnerability advisory to the exact vendor, product, and release installed in an environment. What is the most precise classification?

  1. CPE asset matching
  2. Risk-based patch prioritization
  3. Configuration benchmark assessment
  4. CVSS base score
  5. CVE identifier
  6. Authenticated vulnerability scan

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Common Platform Enumeration provides standardized product identifiers used in automated matching; an imprecise product mapping can create false findings. To constrain the corresponding risk, defenders should verify CPE mapping against actual package and build inventory; accurate product identity prevents misassigning vulnerabilities to unrelated software or missing an affected edition and build.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Exposure and exploit conditions influence practical risk even when the underlying vulnerability ID and published severity match; the events given do not establish this behavior but do support CPE asset matching.

C:

Configuration assessment compares deployed settings to a defined security benchmark; vulnerability risk can result from misconfiguration without a missing software update; the reported conditions are characteristic of CPE asset matching, not that path.

D:

CVSS base metrics characterize intrinsic exploitability and impact; local exposure and business consequences are captured separately through context or environmental assessment; those prerequisites differ from the CPE asset matching behavior in the record.

E:

A CVE is a standardized identifier for a disclosed vulnerability; it is not itself a severity score, exploit proof, or patch confirmation; this would classify another type of evidence, whereas the actual finding shows CPE asset matching.

F:

Credentialed scanning examines installed versions, configurations, and local patch state; network-only checks may miss software with no exposed banner; the relevant mechanism in the observed workflow is CPE asset matching instead.

Question 600

The testing team seeks a specific preventive recommendation for this finding: A corporate iPhone runs unapproved jailbreak changes that allow a third-party utility to inspect processes the standard iOS sandbox normally protects. What should be implemented?

  1. Check platform integrity and limit high-risk access from modified devices
  2. Review provisioning entitlements and use only approved capabilities
  3. Restrict risky overlay and accessibility grants and monitor suspicious apps
  4. Minimize exported components and enforce permissions for sensitive entry points

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Device posture controls keep sensitive services from relying on security guarantees a jailbroken host may no longer provide. It directly addresses this mechanism: jailbreaking removes or circumvents operating-system restrictions, reducing the assurance normally provided by signed code and system isolation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Least-capability provisioning reduces unnecessary platform privileges and clarifies which features the operating system should allow; the action is aimed at iOS entitlement control; it leaves the central jailbroken iOS risk condition unresolved.

C:

Platform safeguards and application controls reduce the ability of one app to draw deceptive credential forms over another; this is relevant to a separate mobile overlay credential theft scenario, rather than the identified exposure; the tested fault instead involves jailbroken iOS risk.

D:

Explicit component exposure and caller checks prevent another application from invoking privileged behavior meant only for internal flows; the tested weakness is jailbroken iOS risk, not the Android exported component configuration addressed here.

Certified Ethical Hacker v13 (312-50v13) Practice Tests