ECCouncil 212-89 (EC-Council Certified Incident Handler) Practice Test 32

Question 310

Cleanup is not considered complete. The case record describes: An endpoint's network isolation is reversed automatically by an unapproved management script. Which remediation task is necessary rather than merely suppressing the visible symptom?

  1. Suspend the conflicting automation and apply an authorized network quarantine
  2. Test incident overrides against routine endpoint management jobs
  3. Correct automation ownership and verify containment survives a policy cycle
  4. Scan and rebuild affected endpoints and sanitize or retire contaminated media

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Durable remediation requires fixing the conflicting control; technical closure should demonstrate that the control gap behind why malware containment does not persist is actually corrected.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Isolation must remain effective while active compromise is investigated; the case needs trusted restoration addressing why malware containment does not persist; temporary protection does not complete correction.

B:

Runbook integration prevents accidental de-isolation; when judging why malware containment does not persist, future hardening is not current-state recovery; this is instead recurrence prevention.

D:

Cleanup must cover both endpoints and the transport vehicle; that method could help with whether removable media caused repeated reinfections; the trusted restoration decision here involves why malware containment does not persist.

Question 311

Following initial stabilization, the team must prove recovery for this case: An application server begins mining cryptocurrency and generating high CPU usage from a newly deployed container image. Choose THREE actions that separately (1) verify the reported facts, (2) protect against immediate harm and (3) correct the underlying failure before service returns. (Choose THREE.)

  1. Redeploy from a verified image and rotate exposed workload secrets
  2. Stop the offending container and restrict its egress while preserving metadata
  3. Use host firewalls, patch management and lateral-movement detections
  4. Detect unusual NXDOMAIN bursts and rare-domain patterns
  5. Compare image provenance, running process tree and outbound mining-pool traffic
  6. Sign and scan images and restrict unapproved registry sources

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

A compromised image or credential can persist across simple restarts; within the combined response for whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse, this supplies trusted restoration: the owner can validate the correction against the evidence bearing on whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse.

B:

Containment stops resource theft without necessarily destroying the image evidence; within the combined response for whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse, this supplies initial containment or preservation: the action limits the impact connected to whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse without assuming the underlying flaw is already gone.

E:

Container identity and runtime behavior establish whether the workload is compromised; within the combined response for whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse, this supplies evidence validation: the review should retain source and timing information relevant to whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse.

Incorrect Answers

C:

Layered controls reduce workstation-to-workstation spread; that method could help with whether a worm propagated laterally; the trusted restoration decision here involves whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse.

D:

Behavioral rules can catch domain rotation without static block lists; the relevant condition for that step is whether the host exhibits domain-generation command traffic, which is not shown for whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse.

F:

Software supply-chain controls reduce malicious workload deployment; the goal is trusted restoration for whether a malicious image is responsible for compute abuse. Future hardening is not current-state recovery.

Question 312

The first task is to corroborate an alert. The case notes state: Ransomware starts encrypting a file share while snapshots remain healthy and accessible. What should the investigator examine to distinguish a substantiated finding from an assumption?

  1. Use least-privilege share access and immutable backup protection
  2. Correlate backup-management commands with file-encryption onset
  3. Disconnect the infected client and revoke its write access to the share
  4. Correlate file rename bursts with the initiating process and SMB session

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Identifying the source host helps stop active write activity; it makes the determination of which containment step stops ongoing encryption defensible and reviewable by the incident owner.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Reduced write permissions and protected copies limit future losses; the case needs evidence validation addressing which containment step stops ongoing encryption; prevention is not incident verification.

B:

Destructive backup commands help establish intent and attack chronology; it is meant to address whether backup-suppression activity is part of the attack, not evidence validation for which containment step stops ongoing encryption.

C:

Stopping the active writer limits damage while preserving clean snapshots; for which containment step stops ongoing encryption, immediate protection does not substantiate findings; evidence validation remains necessary.

Question 313

The response team seeks the relevant control point for this problem: A malicious binary uses a trusted signed application to load a sidecar library from a writable directory. Investigators need both a defensible factual finding and a limited immediate safeguard. Which TWO actions jointly satisfy those requirements? (Choose TWO.)

  1. Replace altered components and fix writable library paths
  2. Control executable search paths and monitor unsigned modules in sensitive applications
  3. Examine module-load telemetry, library path and file creation times
  4. Quarantine the tampered application directory and block execution of the sidecar module
  5. Alert on system-like process names executing from writable directories

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

A legitimate executable can load a malicious library from an unsafe search location; within the combined response for whether DLL side-loading caused the activity, this supplies evidence validation: it makes the determination of whether DLL side-loading caused the activity defensible and reviewable by the incident owner.

D:

Containing the loading path prevents repeated execution without blaming the signer alone; within the combined response for whether DLL side-loading caused the activity, this supplies initial containment or preservation: this is a first-response safeguard for whether DLL side-loading caused the activity, not a substitute for full root-cause analysis.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cleaning only the signed executable misses the malicious dependency; when judging whether DLL side-loading caused the activity, corrective follow-through follows initial protection; this is instead trusted restoration.

B:

Reducing side-loading opportunities makes abuse harder; for whether DLL side-loading caused the activity, prevention cannot replace immediate action; initial containment or preservation remains necessary.

E:

Path-aware monitoring distinguishes impersonation from normal OS activity; the other incident centers on whether a process name is being spoofed, not this initial containment or preservation question about whether DLL side-loading caused the activity.

Question 314

The initial scene or threat protection decision concerns the following: Following cleanup, responders cannot explain why the same malicious service reappears after a configuration-management run. The first response plan must document the reported condition AND limit near-term harm. Select TWO case-specific steps. (Choose TWO.)

  1. Compare management manifests and agent execution times with service recreation
  2. Protect build systems and require approval for baseline configuration changes
  3. Pause the offending deployment job and quarantine its source artifacts
  4. Repair the trusted image or manifest and redeploy only signed verified content
  5. Make EDR-health checks a formal exit criterion for quarantine

Explanation

Correct Answers

A:

A compromised image or script can reinstall artifacts on clean endpoints; within the combined response for whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware, this supplies evidence validation: the review should retain source and timing information relevant to whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware.

C:

Stopping distribution prevents repeated contamination; within the combined response for whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware, this supplies initial containment or preservation: the action limits the impact connected to whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware without assuming the underlying flaw is already gone.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Supply-chain integrity is part of malware prevention; when judging whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware, prevention cannot replace immediate action; this is instead recurrence prevention.

D:

Root-cause cleanup must include the software distribution pipeline; the requirement concerns whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware, so corrective follow-through follows initial protection.

E:

Monitoring continuity reduces silent reinfection; the activity targets whether recovery validation includes monitoring health; initial containment or preservation here concerns whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware.

Question 315

A containment decision is required for this incident: A workstation repeatedly contacts algorithmically generated domains after an unexplained process starts at login. The incident owner wants a corroborating check and a protective action before recovery begins. Which TWO choices fit these separate tasks? (Choose TWO.)

  1. Remove unauthorized remote-access persistence and reset impacted credentials
  2. Detect unusual NXDOMAIN bursts and rare-domain patterns
  3. Correlate DNS query sequences with process creation and network connections
  4. Isolate the host's outbound traffic and preserve relevant DNS telemetry
  5. Remove the associated persistence and examine credentials used by the process

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

High-volume pseudo-random lookups tied to one process support a DGA hypothesis; within the combined response for whether the host exhibits domain-generation command traffic, this supplies evidence validation: the objective is to establish whether the host exhibits domain-generation command traffic; the result can then guide the later protective decision.

D:

The block curbs command retrieval while retaining host evidence; within the combined response for whether the host exhibits domain-generation command traffic, this supplies initial containment or preservation: the immediate response addresses whether the host exhibits domain-generation command traffic while the team preserves relevant case records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cleanup should follow the actor's access mechanism, not simply delete OS utilities; the other incident centers on whether living-off-the-land execution masks malicious behavior, not this initial containment or preservation question about whether the host exhibits domain-generation command traffic.

B:

Behavioral rules can catch domain rotation without static block lists; the goal is initial containment or preservation for whether the host exhibits domain-generation command traffic. Prevention cannot replace immediate action.

E:

Eradication must address how the unwanted process restarts or maintains access; when judging whether the host exhibits domain-generation command traffic, corrective follow-through follows initial protection; this is instead trusted restoration.

Question 316

A technical closure review begins after this incident: A malicious browser download installs a local proxy that intercepts user sessions. After the immediate situation is stabilized, what addresses the enabling failure?

  1. Compare system proxy settings, installed certificates and process listeners
  2. Limit local proxy changes and monitor certificate trust-store modifications
  3. Disable the unauthorized proxy and isolate the endpoint for credential assessment
  4. Remove malicious proxy components and distrust injected certificates
  5. Restore service configuration from trusted baselines and inspect related startup entries

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Recovering safe transport requires reversing configuration and trust changes; it is the corrective action needed for whether a configuration-based interception remains active after the immediate hazard is controlled.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Local proxy changes can redirect traffic even after the original installer exits; for whether a configuration-based interception remains active, verification is not the corrective step; trusted restoration remains necessary.

B:

Configuration integrity blocks a less visible malware persistence route; the requirement concerns whether a configuration-based interception remains active, so future hardening is not current-state recovery.

C:

Stopping interception prevents additional session capture; the goal is trusted restoration for whether a configuration-based interception remains active. Temporary protection does not complete correction.

E:

Completeness matters because multiple persistence mechanisms can coexist; the activity targets whether startup configuration will reinfect the system; trusted restoration here concerns whether a configuration-based interception remains active.

Question 317

Before making any disruptive change, an investigator is handed these observations: A ransomware affiliate disables volume shadow copies just before encrypting departmental data. Which source best supports the incident finding before responders modify the environment?

  1. Correlate USB insertion logs with first execution time on each affected station
  2. Alert on unauthorized backup deletion and maintain immutable offline copies
  3. Correlate backup-management commands with file-encryption onset
  4. Terminate the offending execution and secure isolated recovery repositories
  5. Rebuild affected systems and recover from protected backups verified clean

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Destructive backup commands help establish intent and attack chronology; it connects the question of whether backup-suppression activity is part of the attack to an observable record and a reproducible check.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Device-use chronology can link a shared medium to infection; this serves whether removable media caused repeated reinfections, whereas the requested result is evidence validation involving whether backup-suppression activity is part of the attack.

B:

Protection outside attacker control improves recoverability; the goal is evidence validation for whether backup-suppression activity is part of the attack. Prevention is not incident verification.

D:

Protecting remaining copies is crucial before broader restoration; the case needs evidence validation addressing whether backup-suppression activity is part of the attack; immediate protection does not substantiate findings.

E:

Local shadow copies may be unavailable or untrustworthy; when judging whether backup-suppression activity is part of the attack, recovery is not factual verification; this is instead trusted restoration.

Question 318

The incident owner requests a defensible factual determination after hearing: An endpoint shows a new kernel driver shortly before security agents begin failing. What fact-checking activity tests the observed failure most directly?

  1. Capture process memory, memory maps and injection-related events
  2. Enforce driver-signing policies and restrict driver installation privileges
  3. Disconnect the endpoint using an external network control if host sensors are untrusted
  4. Inspect driver-load events, signature status and kernel integrity indicators

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A suspicious driver can interfere with EDR visibility and operating-system protections; the objective is to establish whether low-level tampering explains sensor loss; the result can then guide the later protective decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Runtime evidence can reveal payloads invisible to file-only scanning; this serves whether in-memory execution explains the alert, whereas the requested result is evidence validation involving whether low-level tampering explains sensor loss.

B:

Preventive controls limit unauthorized kernel code execution; the requirement concerns whether low-level tampering explains sensor loss, so prevention is not incident verification.

C:

Out-of-band isolation avoids reliance on a potentially disabled agent; the goal is evidence validation for whether low-level tampering explains sensor loss. Immediate protection does not substantiate findings.

Question 319

A containment decision is required for this incident: A Windows endpoint contains an executable masquerading as a system process in a user-writable folder. The incident owner wants a corroborating check and a protective action before recovery begins. Which TWO choices fit these separate tasks? (Choose TWO.)

  1. Alert on unusual scheduled-task registration by non-administrative workflows
  2. Alert on system-like process names executing from writable directories
  3. Quarantine the user-writable binary and isolate related process execution
  4. Replace altered components and fix writable library paths
  5. Check signer, executable path, hash and parent process rather than display name
  6. Remove the imposter and investigate how it was launched

Explanation

Correct Answers

C:

Action against the real file avoids disrupting the genuine operating-system component; within the combined response for whether a process name is being spoofed, this supplies initial containment or preservation: it restricts the path implicated in whether a process name is being spoofed; later eradication and restoration remain separate decisions.

E:

A familiar name outside the expected protected directory can mask malware; within the combined response for whether a process name is being spoofed, this supplies evidence validation: this evidence is scoped to whether a process name is being spoofed, not a generic system-health reading.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Monitoring persistence changes provides earlier detection; it is meant to address which persistence artifact causes recurring execution, not initial containment or preservation for whether a process name is being spoofed.

B:

Path-aware monitoring distinguishes impersonation from normal OS activity; the goal is initial containment or preservation for whether a process name is being spoofed. Prevention cannot replace immediate action.

D:

Cleaning only the signed executable misses the malicious dependency; that method could help with whether DLL side-loading caused the activity; the initial containment or preservation decision here involves whether a process name is being spoofed.

F:

Startup links or scripts can recreate the fraudulent process; for whether a process name is being spoofed, corrective follow-through follows initial protection; initial containment or preservation remains necessary.

Question 320

A technical closure review begins after this incident: Security monitoring sees an unsigned PowerShell process spawning from a downloaded Office document. After the immediate situation is stabilized, what addresses the enabling failure?

  1. Remove the malicious task and validate other startup mechanisms
  2. Remove the malicious document and persistence and check secondary payloads
  3. Harden Office child-process restrictions and PowerShell telemetry
  4. Correlate Office process ancestry with PowerShell command-line and script block logs
  5. Suspend the malicious process tree and isolate the endpoint for collection

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The first script may only download or launch further components; the affected workflow should not be considered trusted until the issue of whether a document triggered script-based malware is resolved.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cleanup should ensure the attacker did not create a second trigger; the other incident centers on which persistence artifact causes recurring execution, not this trusted restoration question about whether a document triggered script-based malware.

C:

Application controls reduce this common execution chain; the goal is trusted restoration for whether a document triggered script-based malware. Future hardening is not current-state recovery.

D:

Parent-child and script evidence connect the document action to execution; verification is not the corrective step in the decision about whether a document triggered script-based malware.

E:

Targeted interruption limits payload activity while retaining execution history; the case needs trusted restoration addressing whether a document triggered script-based malware; temporary protection does not complete correction.

EC-Council Certified Incident Handler (212-89) Practice Tests