ECCouncil 212-89 (EC-Council Certified Incident Handler) Practice Test 33

Question 320

A technical closure review begins after this incident: Security monitoring sees an unsigned PowerShell process spawning from a downloaded Office document. After the immediate situation is stabilized, what addresses the enabling failure?

  1. Remove the malicious task and validate other startup mechanisms
  2. Remove the malicious document and persistence and check secondary payloads
  3. Harden Office child-process restrictions and PowerShell telemetry
  4. Correlate Office process ancestry with PowerShell command-line and script block logs
  5. Suspend the malicious process tree and isolate the endpoint for collection

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The first script may only download or launch further components; the affected workflow should not be considered trusted until the issue of whether a document triggered script-based malware is resolved.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cleanup should ensure the attacker did not create a second trigger; the other incident centers on which persistence artifact causes recurring execution, not this trusted restoration question about whether a document triggered script-based malware.

C:

Application controls reduce this common execution chain; the goal is trusted restoration for whether a document triggered script-based malware. Future hardening is not current-state recovery.

D:

Parent-child and script evidence connect the document action to execution; verification is not the corrective step in the decision about whether a document triggered script-based malware.

E:

Targeted interruption limits payload activity while retaining execution history; the case needs trusted restoration addressing whether a document triggered script-based malware; temporary protection does not complete correction.

Question 321

To distinguish suspicion from confirmed impact, the SOC examines this case: A threat actor modifies an application's startup service to download a payload after every reboot. Which review would give the incident owner the strongest case-specific evidence?

  1. Disable the malicious startup entry and block its known distribution endpoint
  2. Review cron entries, file histories and spawned command lines
  3. Review service registry or unit definitions and outbound fetch records
  4. Restrict service creation and monitor changes to boot-time execution paths

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A startup downloader can replenish malware removed from the filesystem; it connects the question of whether startup configuration will reinfect the system to an observable record and a reproducible check.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Both trigger and destination must be addressed to interrupt re-execution; immediate protection does not substantiate findings in the decision about whether startup configuration will reinfect the system.

B:

The scheduled execution pattern remains stable even when payload bytes rotate; the relevant condition for that step is why signature-only cleanup fails, which is not shown for whether startup configuration will reinfect the system.

D:

Baseline enforcement exposes stealthy persistence modifications; for whether startup configuration will reinfect the system, prevention is not incident verification; evidence validation remains necessary.

Question 322

A responder is tasked with limiting immediate impact after this report: A malware outbreak spreads by portable media in a manufacturing facility with limited network connectivity. The first response plan must document the reported condition AND limit near-term harm. Select TWO case-specific steps. (Choose TWO.)

  1. Test incident overrides against routine endpoint management jobs
  2. Quarantine suspect removable drives and restrict new removable-media mounts
  3. Use controlled media transfer stations and removable-device policies
  4. Correlate USB insertion logs with first execution time on each affected station
  5. Scan and rebuild affected endpoints and sanitize or retire contaminated media

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Physical medium control prevents another host from receiving the payload; within the combined response for whether removable media caused repeated reinfections, this supplies initial containment or preservation: the action limits the impact connected to whether removable media caused repeated reinfections without assuming the underlying flaw is already gone.

D:

Device-use chronology can link a shared medium to infection; within the combined response for whether removable media caused repeated reinfections, this supplies evidence validation: the review should retain source and timing information relevant to whether removable media caused repeated reinfections.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Runbook integration prevents accidental de-isolation; the other incident centers on why malware containment does not persist, not this initial containment or preservation question about whether removable media caused repeated reinfections.

C:

Air-gapped operations still require ingress controls; the goal is initial containment or preservation for whether removable media caused repeated reinfections. Prevention cannot replace immediate action.

E:

Cleanup must cover both endpoints and the transport vehicle; the case needs initial containment or preservation addressing whether removable media caused repeated reinfections; corrective follow-through follows initial protection.

Question 323

A triage analyst needs to test a report involving these details: A response team cannot safely analyze unknown executables because analysts run them on production desktops. Which evidence collection or correlation is most relevant to this claim?

  1. Review recovery images, clinical downtime procedures and network isolation dependencies
  2. Use disposable analysis environments with network controls and reset procedures
  3. Prohibit live execution on production endpoints and quarantine samples
  4. Inventory isolated sandbox capacity and access to safe forensic tooling

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Untrusted code should be examined in a controlled environment that cannot reach business systems; that evidence directly tests the concern about whether malware analysis has appropriate isolation, rather than relying on a single unverified indicator.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Medical device availability and supported reimaging constraints change the response options; it is meant to address whether malware response preparation covers critical medical endpoints, not evidence validation for whether malware analysis has appropriate isolation.

B:

Safe laboratory processes support repeatable malware investigation; for whether malware analysis has appropriate isolation, prevention is not incident verification; evidence validation remains necessary.

C:

The containment boundary prevents analysis from spreading malware; the requirement concerns whether malware analysis has appropriate isolation, so immediate protection does not substantiate findings.

Question 324

A post-incident audit examines the following failure mode: Several endpoints report unusual SMB connections and the same malicious process shortly after one laptop was infected. What recurring check or restriction would best address the weakness?

  1. Enforce driver-signing policies and restrict driver installation privileges
  2. Use host firewalls, patch management and lateral-movement detections
  3. Clean or rebuild infected systems and remediate the exploited SMB exposure
  4. Correlate east-west SMB flow records with common payload hashes and process starts

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Layered controls reduce workstation-to-workstation spread; it closes a repeatable gap revealed by whether a worm propagated laterally without removing useful monitoring.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Preventive controls limit unauthorized kernel code execution; the activity targets whether low-level tampering explains sensor loss; recurrence prevention here concerns whether a worm propagated laterally.

C:

Removing payloads without closing the propagation route invites reinfection; when judging whether a worm propagated laterally, case recovery is not future-risk control; this is instead trusted restoration.

D:

Shared artifacts and spread timing distinguish propagation from independent alerts; for whether a worm propagated laterally, an investigation is not recurrence prevention; recurrence prevention remains necessary.

Question 325

Post-containment analysis identified this issue for correction: The incident team stores a decryption key only inside the infected server's local password vault. Which remediation is supported by the observed root-cause conditions?

  1. Run samples in a controlled sandbox and preserve observations and hashes
  2. Secure an authorized independent copy of the recovery key under dual control
  3. Validate that a clean recovery environment can retrieve the protected key
  4. Maintain offline escrow and periodic key-recovery exercises

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Access testing catches dependency failure before an emergency; this goes beyond temporary protection and addresses the failure identified through whether recovery keys remain accessible during host isolation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An isolated test enables behavioral analysis without risking corporate workloads; the relevant condition for that step is whether malware analysis has appropriate isolation, which is not shown for whether recovery keys remain accessible during host isolation.

B:

Off-host custody permits restoration without relying on the infected machine; the case needs trusted restoration addressing whether recovery keys remain accessible during host isolation; temporary protection does not complete correction.

D:

Resilience depends on accessible, well-governed cryptographic material; for whether recovery keys remain accessible during host isolation, future hardening is not current-state recovery; trusted restoration remains necessary.

Question 326

A responder is tasked with limiting immediate impact after this report: The team deletes ransomware notes but does not test recovered database transactions. The first response plan must document the reported condition AND limit near-term harm. Select TWO case-specific steps. (Choose TWO.)

  1. Restore the database from a verified clean recovery point and reconcile business transactions
  2. Run application consistency and transaction reconciliation against known-good data
  3. Hold external transaction processing until integrity checks pass
  4. Repair or reinstall trusted security instrumentation and retest detections
  5. Include functional restoration tests in ransomware recovery exercises
  6. Record infection timelines and periodically test restore-point integrity

Explanation

Correct Answers

B:

Removal of a visible note does not prove database integrity; within the combined response for whether business service recovery is complete, this supplies evidence validation: it connects the question of whether business service recovery is complete to an observable record and a reproducible check.

C:

Restricting writes prevents corrupt data from propagating; within the combined response for whether business service recovery is complete, this supplies initial containment or preservation: the scope of this restriction follows whether business service recovery is complete rather than indiscriminately changing unrelated assets.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Transaction-level reconciliation and a trustworthy recovery point address integrity failures beyond ransomware-note removal; for whether business service recovery is complete, corrective follow-through follows initial protection; initial containment or preservation remains necessary.

D:

Recovery should restore the ability to observe subsequent malicious activity; the other incident centers on whether recovery validation includes monitoring health, not this initial containment or preservation question about whether business service recovery is complete.

E:

Service success requires more than malware absence; the case needs initial containment or preservation addressing whether business service recovery is complete; prevention cannot replace immediate action.

F:

Backup selection improves when detection history is available; the activity targets whether a backup predates attacker persistence; initial containment or preservation here concerns whether business service recovery is complete.

Question 327

A control owner is preparing preventive actions after observing: An organization discovers that endpoint alerts are retained for only a day despite frequent weekend outages. What tested hardening or process measure follows from the lessons learned?

  1. Use disposable analysis environments with network controls and reset procedures
  2. Review EDR event retention, log export and investigation access settings
  3. Test weekend investigation scenarios and evidence retrieval deadlines
  4. Establish adequate retention with access controls and retrieval tests

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Preparedness should reflect realistic detection latency; a periodic review of this safeguard can track the risk described by whether malware telemetry will survive delayed discovery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Safe laboratory processes support repeatable malware investigation; it is meant to address whether malware analysis has appropriate isolation, not recurrence prevention for whether malware telemetry will survive delayed discovery.

B:

Insufficient history can hide the initial payload and lateral movement; an investigation is not recurrence prevention in the decision about whether malware telemetry will survive delayed discovery.

D:

Retention must support actual investigation windows and response obligations; when judging whether malware telemetry will survive delayed discovery, case recovery is not future-risk control; this is instead trusted restoration.

Question 328

A long-term control assessment uses this recent event: A recovered workstation looks clean but EDR telemetry stops immediately after reintegration. Which change provides measurable prevention rather than an emergency workaround?

  1. Repair or reinstall trusted security instrumentation and retest detections
  2. Check sensor heartbeat, policy status and event ingestion after network return
  3. Protect build systems and require approval for baseline configuration changes
  4. Make EDR-health checks a formal exit criterion for quarantine

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Monitoring continuity reduces silent reinfection; it closes a repeatable gap revealed by whether recovery validation includes monitoring health without removing useful monitoring.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Recovery should restore the ability to observe subsequent malicious activity; when judging whether recovery validation includes monitoring health, case recovery is not future-risk control; this is instead trusted restoration.

B:

An endpoint without functioning telemetry cannot be considered fully verified; for whether recovery validation includes monitoring health, an investigation is not recurrence prevention; recurrence prevention remains necessary.

C:

Supply-chain integrity is part of malware prevention; the relevant condition for that step is whether deployment automation is reintroducing malware, which is not shown for whether recovery validation includes monitoring health.

Question 329

A security analyst is asked to validate the following reported behavior: An engineering team disables antivirus exclusions review because build tools occasionally create false positives. Which check can confirm the relevant facts before a disruptive action?

  1. Inspect endpoint policy scope and detections in excluded directories
  2. Inspect Office macro trust state, file origin markings and process ancestry
  3. Narrow or revoke unsafe exclusions after testing legitimate workloads
  4. Require expiration, owner and justification for every exclusion

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Unbounded exceptions can make attacker-controlled paths invisible; it connects the question of whether broad exclusions hide malware execution to an observable record and a reproducible check.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Internet-origin macros provide an avoidable initial execution surface; the other incident centers on whether document execution controls are effective, not this evidence validation question about whether broad exclusions hide malware execution.

C:

Restoring visibility reduces malware concealment without needlessly blocking builds; the requirement concerns whether broad exclusions hide malware execution, so immediate protection does not substantiate findings.

D:

Governed exceptions limit long-term exposure; the goal is evidence validation for whether broad exclusions hide malware execution. Prevention is not incident verification.

Question 330

A case advances from immediate protection to root-cause correction after: A rebuilt endpoint is immediately rejoined to an identity domain where its machine credentials are suspected stolen. Which verified recovery step is appropriate after initial containment?

  1. Tie reimaging playbooks to credential and certificate reissuance checks
  2. Choose a verified clean restore point and apply missing security fixes
  3. Rotate machine credentials and validate domain enrollment under approved procedure
  4. Keep the rebuilt device out of privileged network segments until identity trust is reset

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Trust restoration must address the identity plane as well as local files; the recovery decision is tied to whether endpoint trust is safe to restore, not merely to reduced alert volume.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Integrated recovery prevents old credentials from surviving the rebuild; for whether endpoint trust is safe to restore, future hardening is not current-state recovery; trusted restoration remains necessary.

B:

Trusted recovery requires both clean data and closed entry paths; the relevant condition for that step is whether a backup predates attacker persistence, which is not shown for whether endpoint trust is safe to restore.

D:

Network gating limits re-entry while identity risk remains; temporary protection does not complete correction in the decision about whether endpoint trust is safe to restore.

EC-Council Certified Incident Handler (212-89) Practice Tests