Question 260
A business decides to discontinue an obsolete Internet-facing service because its security exposure exceeds the benefits it provides. Which strategy applies?
- Risk avoidance
- Risk acceptance
- Risk monitoring without action
- Risk transfer
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Removing the activity or asset that creates the exposure avoids that specific risk rather than attempting to tolerate or insure it.
Incorrect Answers
B:Acceptance would authorize continuing to carry the exposure, whereas the company is shutting down the risky activity.
C:Observation alone leaves the vulnerable service online, contrary to the stated plan to remove it.
D:Transfer reallocates some consequences but would not itself end the vulnerable service or eliminate its attack path.
Question 261
A residual risk remains after compensating controls, and leadership decides the benefit justifies the exposure. What must make that decision legitimate?
- Automatic approval by every vendor with network access
- An engineer's undocumented verbal assurance
- Documented acceptance by an authorized risk owner within policy thresholds
- Deletion of the risk register entry
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Formal acceptance identifies the exposure, rationale, accountability, and conditions for review rather than allowing unmanaged exceptions.
Incorrect Answers
A:Suppliers do not normally own the enterprise's strategic decision to tolerate business security exposure.
B:Informal approval lacks traceable authority and may bypass tolerance thresholds established by leadership.
D:Removing evidence does not eliminate residual risk and conceals the decision from oversight and future review.
Question 262
A network team deploys segmentation and patches vulnerable edge devices to reduce the probability and reach of compromise. Which risk response is this?
- Risk acceptance without treatment
- Risk mitigation
- Risk avoidance by abandoning the business service
- Risk transfer alone
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Technical controls reduce likelihood or impact while acknowledging that some remaining exposure may need continued monitoring.
Incorrect Answers
A:Acceptance permits an exposure to remain, whereas these actions actively reduce the vulnerability and movement paths.
C:The company keeps the service operating and lowers risk, rather than eliminating the activity entirely.
D:Patching and segmentation directly change technical exposure; they are not primarily contracts that shift losses to a third party.
Question 263
A CVSS-critical flaw exists on an isolated lab system, while a medium-rated flaw is actively exploited on a public payment gateway. Which prioritization is most defensible?
- Ignore the payment gateway because the CVSS score is lower
- Patch age measured without asset business context
- Always patch the numerically highest CVSS score first in every context
- Incorporate exploit activity, exposure, asset criticality, and compensating controls
- Rank solely by estimated exploitation probability without exposure or business-impact context
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:CVSS is a useful technical input, but current threat context and business consequences determine practical remediation priority.
Incorrect Answers
A:Real-world exploitation and criticality can make a lower base score more urgent than an isolated higher-rated weakness.
B:Days since disclosure are useful for tracking, yet an actively exploited gateway carrying payment traffic may need faster action despite age.
C:Numeric severity alone can miss actively exploited public paths to critical business services.
E:A probability estimate can assist prioritization, but by itself it cannot compare business consequences, access prerequisites, or controls protecting the affected asset.
Question 264
A vulnerability scanner uses valid system credentials to inspect installed packages and configuration instead of only probing exposed ports. What is the benefit?
- It eliminates the need to protect scanning credentials
- It proves the scanner can exploit every reported weakness
- Authenticated assessment can reduce blind spots in local software and configuration inventory
- It guarantees zero false positives for every vendor product
Explanation
Correct Answer
C:Credentialed checks often identify patch state and host settings not observable through unauthenticated network banners alone.
Incorrect Answers
A:Scan accounts may be sensitive and require least privilege, secure storage, and rotation regardless of detection quality.
B:Finding a vulnerable version or setting does not guarantee an exploitation path under current controls.
D:Credentials can improve evidence but cannot remove all fingerprinting, policy, or environmental interpretation errors.
Question 265
A scanner flags an outdated service version, but manual inspection confirms the vendor backported the security fix without changing the visible banner. What is the most likely classification?
- False positive due to version-only inference
- Guaranteed data exfiltration
- Automatically accepted residual risk
- Confirmed zero-day exploitation
Explanation
Correct Answer
A:Banner-based checks can misidentify risk when a supported distributor backports fixes; package advisories and evidence help confirm remediation.
Incorrect Answers
B:Exfiltration requires separate evidence of unauthorized data transfer, not merely a disputed scan finding.
C:A mistaken vulnerability detection is an evidence issue, not a documented decision to tolerate real exposure.
D:A stale version string does not establish that the system is being actively exploited through an unknown vulnerability.
Question 266
A vulnerability is present on a database library but the vulnerable function cannot be reached from any application path in the deployed build. What should assessment distinguish?
- Ignore all library vulnerabilities regardless of future changes
- Vulnerable component presence from an actually reachable exploit path
- Treat a published CVE as proof of completed attacker access
- Assume every installed library is always Internet reachable
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Exposure analysis evaluates prerequisites, code reachability, and compensating controls rather than equating installed code with immediate exploitability.
Incorrect Answers
A:Current reachability may change with releases or configuration, so inventory and monitoring remain necessary.
C:A disclosure identifies a weakness but does not show that adversaries exploited this specific deployment.
D:Deployment and application call paths govern exposure; a package's presence alone does not prove remote invocation.
Question 267
A severe externally reachable firewall defect has a seven-day remediation target, but owners want to postpone it without controls. What should the program enforce?
- Removal of the device from all vulnerability reports
- Unlimited deferral without any recorded risk decision
- Automatic closure when a ticket is assigned
- A risk-based patch SLA with escalation and documented exception controls
Explanation
Correct Answer
D:Service-level remediation targets need accountable owners and formal approval for justified delays, especially when exposure is critical.
Incorrect Answers
A:Suppressing the finding hides incomplete work without reducing the exploited condition.
B:Indefinite unmanaged delay leaves the edge exposure open and undermines policy enforcement.
C:Assignment begins remediation, but closing before patch or valid mitigation verification falsely signals completion.
Question 268
A legacy operating system cannot receive a needed security patch for three months. Which treatment is an appropriate interim compensating control?
- Disable every security alert originating from the host
- Tighten isolation, restrict access, increase monitoring, and schedule replacement
- Make the legacy host a general-purpose jump server
- Allow anonymous access so support is easier
Explanation
Correct Answer
B:Layered restrictions can reduce attack reachability while a tracked exception acknowledges the unresolved underlying vulnerability.
Incorrect Answers
A:Suppression removes signals of exploitation instead of compensating for the unpatched condition.
C:Additional administrative use increases connections and exposure precisely while the system remains vulnerable.
D:Anonymous access creates a new weakness and cannot substitute for timely remediation or controlled isolation.
Question 269
A new employee analytics feature will aggregate detailed location data and share it with a processor. Which TWO inputs belong in a privacy impact assessment? Choose TWO.
- Assume location observations are never personal data
- Evaluate individual privacy risks and necessary safeguards
- Publish raw employee trajectories to simplify audit
- Map the personal data, processing purpose, and involved parties
- Ignore external processor arrangements entirely
Explanation
Correct Answers
B:A PIA assesses potential harm and whether minimization, access controls, transparency, and other mitigations are sufficient.
D:Understanding collection and flows reveals where sensitive information is used, stored, disclosed, and retained.
Incorrect Answers
A:Contextual movement data may identify individuals, so that assumption could hide significant obligations.
C:Unrestricted disclosure increases privacy risk and is not required for assessing the processing activity.
E:Third-party recipients can introduce critical security, contract, jurisdictional, and retention considerations.
Question 270
A formal risk program has implemented controls and needs to ensure exposure remains acceptable as business systems change. Which TWO activities support continuous monitoring? Choose TWO.
- Review emerging threats, control performance, and material environment changes
- Freeze every assessment score permanently after initial approval
- Remove all residual risks from management reporting
- Treat a completed audit as proof that no future threats can emerge
- Report deviations and treatment progress to accountable risk owners
Explanation
Correct Answers
A:Risk changes with vulnerabilities, architecture, and attacker behavior, making periodic reassessment necessary.
E:Governance needs evidence that controls work and exceptions or remediation deadlines are handled appropriately.
Incorrect Answers
B:Static scores become outdated when systems, dependencies, and threat conditions change.
C:Unreported exposure cannot be evaluated against business tolerance or revisited by authorized decision makers.
D:An audit represents limited evidence at a point in time and cannot guarantee enduring immunity from new attack paths.