ECCouncil 312-50v13 (Certified Ethical Hacker v13) Practice Test 10

Question 90

A defender analyzing an approved exercise sees this pattern: A probe receives a TCP reset after sending an ACK to a port for which no session was established. Which mechanism is most consistent with it?

  1. UDP service discovery
  2. TCP SYN scan
  3. Firewall port-state ambiguity
  4. TCP ACK firewall probing

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

ACK scanning primarily distinguishes filtered from unfiltered paths; it does not establish that an application listener is open. For a production safeguard, operators can interpret ACK responses as filtering evidence, not port availability; a reset indicates the packet reached a TCP stack under the tested conditions, while SYN or application probes are needed to assess a listener.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A UDP scan often cannot distinguish open from filtered ports when no response arrives; ICMP port-unreachable usually indicates the probed port is closed; the case demonstrates TCP ACK firewall probing rather than the alternate mechanism.

B:

A SYN scan infers open ports from SYN-ACK replies and commonly avoids completing the full TCP connection, subject to privilege and firewall behavior; the observed evidence concerns TCP ACK firewall probing instead.

C:

Filtered results describe the scanner's network vantage point; ACLs, stateful inspection, and packet loss can hide a listener without stopping its local process; the test record points specifically to TCP ACK firewall probing, not this separate mechanism.

Question 91

A remediation meeting focuses on the following finding: A new object-storage export link grants unauthenticated viewers access to a set of sensitive invoices, although no evidence indicates tampering or service interruption. Which proposed action best addresses its root cause?

  1. Limit backup read permissions and enforce authenticated access
  2. Record black-box coverage limitations in the final report
  3. Use redacted samples and retain only minimal proof of access
  4. Log every transfer and verify cryptographic evidence hashes
  5. Apply capacity protection and traffic throttling at the service edge

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Access control and private storage prevent unauthorized retrieval; encryption is beneficial but cannot replace correct authorization for disclosed keys or URLs. It directly addresses this mechanism: confidentiality protects information against unauthorized disclosure; a system can preserve availability and integrity while still failing to restrict who reads sensitive material.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The conclusion should describe the outside-in vantage point; inaccessible authenticated functions cannot be declared secure merely because this test did not reach them; the exposure here is confidentiality, which calls for another protective mechanism.

C:

Masked evidence establishes unauthorized readability while reducing disclosure risk, retention burden, and unnecessary handling of regulated personal information; the action is aimed at data minimization in testing; it leaves the central confidentiality condition unresolved.

D:

A custody record and repeatable integrity check support evidentiary reliability; neither a file name nor an informal email thread establishes the same provenance; this is relevant to a separate evidence chain of custody scenario, rather than the identified exposure; the tested fault instead involves confidentiality.

E:

Rate controls and upstream resilience address resource exhaustion, unlike confidentiality controls that govern who can read protected content; the tested weakness is confidentiality, not the availability configuration addressed here.

Question 92

A defender analyzing an approved exercise sees this pattern: A constrained sensor sends control messages using ordinary CoAP over UDP without datagram or object-level cryptographic protection. Which mechanism is most consistent with it?

  1. CoAP plaintext exchange
  2. Passive OT asset inventory
  3. DNP3 secure authentication
  4. Zigbee insecure joining

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

CoAP is an application protocol often run over UDP; without DTLS, OSCORE, or a protected network, messages may lack confidentiality and authenticity. The appropriate hardening measure is to use DTLS or OSCORE where device capabilities and deployment permit, since appropriate message protection reduces interception and command forgery for constrained devices while acknowledging resource limitations.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Passive OT discovery interprets mirrored network traffic and protocol messages without actively interrogating sensitive equipment, reducing assessment impact; that behavior is distinct from the CoAP plaintext exchange finding being classified.

C:

Secure Authentication for DNP3 adds authentication features to supported message exchanges; basic DNP3 deployments lack equivalent safeguards by default; the scenario identifies CoAP plaintext exchange, which has a different triggering condition.

D:

Weak Zigbee commissioning choices can expose network key material or enable unauthorized enrollment depending on protocol and device configuration; the defining symptom in the prompt is associated with CoAP plaintext exchange instead.

Question 93

The assessor confirmed this exposure: Several managed laptops connect to a stronger-looking wireless signal bearing the corporate SSID but cannot establish the organization's expected trusted authentication-server identity. Which change most directly closes the underlying security gap?

  1. Use a strong random passphrase or move to enterprise authentication
  2. Use certificate-based network access instead of MAC lists as primary security
  3. Use validated enterprise server certificates and rogue-AP detection
  4. Avoid entering corporate passwords into unverified Wi-Fi portal pages

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Clients that verify the authentication server identity are less likely to trust a lookalike AP offering the same SSID. The underlying condition is that an evil twin imitates a legitimate wireless network's identity to intercept associations or lead clients into fraudulent authentication and traffic paths.

Incorrect Answers

A:

High-entropy secrets resist offline guesses, while per-user enterprise credentials remove the single shared passphrase from the whole fleet; the measure addresses a different trust boundary from the evil-twin access point finding.

B:

Cryptographic device identity resists simple address cloning and supports independent credential revocation for each managed endpoint; the required correction concerns evil-twin access point, so this is not the targeted control.

D:

Trusted onboarding methods and validated sign-in domains keep general network-access prompts from becoming identity-theft channels; the exposure here is evil-twin access point, which calls for another protective mechanism.

Question 94

A defender analyzing an approved exercise sees this pattern: A broad high-rate probe reaches shared upstream equipment even though the authorized target list includes only an isolated application subnet. Which mechanism is most consistent with it?

  1. Scope-aware scan scheduling
  2. Idle scan inference
  3. TCP ACK firewall probing
  4. IPv6 neighbor discovery

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Network scanning generates traffic that can affect adjacent shared systems; permission applies to assets and methods, not merely to the assessor's intent. To constrain the corresponding risk, defenders should enforce allowlisted targets, rate limits, and agreed test windows; technical scope enforcement and staged scan pacing help avoid unintended impact beyond authorized addresses or periods.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Idle scanning uses predictable IP ID behavior of a third-party zombie to infer target port state; modern stacks and NAT can frustrate it; the defining symptom in the prompt is associated with scope-aware scan scheduling instead.

C:

ACK scanning primarily distinguishes filtered from unfiltered paths; it does not establish that an application listener is open; the events given do not establish this behavior but do support scope-aware scan scheduling.

D:

IPv6 neighbor discovery resolves local-link peers using ICMPv6 rather than ARP; IPv4-only discovery cannot account for dual-stack assets; the reported conditions are characteristic of scope-aware scan scheduling, not that path.

Question 95

A follow-up review must reduce the risk revealed here: A caller uses a convincing synthetic imitation of a division director to demand a same-day transfer to a new account, conflicting with required financial controls. Which defensive measure fits the specific failure mode?

  1. Use controlled visitor escort and anti-tailgating procedures
  2. Route support requests through authenticated ticket and remote-assistance workflows
  3. Authenticate high-risk requests using agreed challenge and callback procedures
  4. Use mobile-safe link inspection and out-of-band sign-in verification

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Process-based verification resists convincing synthesized audio without relying on human ability to recognize every manipulated recording. The safeguard responds to the underlying issue: AI-generated voice impersonation can mimic recognizable speech, so an apparent familiar voice is not sufficient identity proof.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Individual access checks and visitor handling prevent one person's authorized badge from implicitly admitting an unverified companion; that change targets tailgating, while the confirmed weakness involves synthetic-voice impersonation.

B:

Approved help-desk channels confirm personnel and tool provenance before users allow remote sessions or install agents; it would improve quid-pro-quo scam, not directly correct the reported synthetic-voice impersonation issue.

D:

Encouraging navigation through known applications reduces dependence on untrusted SMS links and counterfeit login pages; the required correction concerns synthetic-voice impersonation, so this is not the targeted control.

Question 96

A production hardening ticket was raised after this confirmed observation: A SQL-backed search application sends verbose database parsing errors to public clients, and a simple malformed parameter reveals table and column names. Which action best targets the risk?

  1. Restrict the database identity without repairing query concatenation
  2. Bind query parameters and suppress detailed database errors in responses
  3. Suppress detailed database errors without changing dynamic query construction
  4. Place a signature-only web firewall in front of the vulnerable endpoint

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Parameterized statements prevent input from changing query structure, while generic external errors avoid exposing schema diagnostics. The underlying condition is that error-based SQL injection extracts information through database-generated errors when untrusted input alters SQL syntax and diagnostics reach the client.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Least privilege reduces potential impact yet does not eliminate the injection that triggered error disclosure; the error-based SQL injection weakness in the question therefore remains uncorrected.

C:

Concealing the database exception removes an information channel but still leaves user input able to influence SQL syntax; the error-based SQL injection weakness in the question therefore remains uncorrected.

D:

Signature blocking may catch known payloads but it cannot prove that application-side SQL construction is safe; the error-based SQL injection weakness in the question therefore remains uncorrected.

Question 97

The assessor confirmed this exposure: A vulnerable query executes conditionally expensive work for certain inputs, and measured response latency leaks information even though the response body never changes. Which change most directly closes the underlying security gap?

  1. Introduce random application response delays as the primary prevention
  2. Parameterize queries and monitor anomalous database execution delays
  3. Suppress database exception text while continuing to concatenate query input
  4. Cap HTTP response time at the gateway without repairing query interpolation

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Binding blocks injected delay expressions; telemetry can identify expensive or suspicious query behavior that error monitoring misses. The safeguard responds to the underlying issue: time-based blind injection infers a condition through deliberate execution-time differences when application output conceals query results and errors.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Artificial jitter can make measurement harder but does not remove the ability to execute injected conditional work; the time-based blind SQL injection weakness in the question therefore remains uncorrected.

C:

This attack relies on timing, not visible exceptions, so the relevant vulnerability and side channel remain; the time-based blind SQL injection weakness in the question therefore remains uncorrected.

D:

A gateway timeout may reduce an obvious signal but leaves the database evaluating attacker-influenced expressions; the time-based blind SQL injection weakness in the question therefore remains uncorrected.

Question 98

A follow-up review must reduce the risk revealed here: A support portal passes an active login identifier in a redirect link, causing the secret to appear in shared bookmarks and outbound referer information. Which defensive measure fits the specific failure mode?

  1. Expire inactive sessions server-side and reauthenticate after the threshold
  2. Rotate the session token when authentication strength or privilege level changes
  3. Keep session identifiers in secure cookies, not URLs
  4. Regenerate session identifiers after successful authentication
  5. Apply appropriate SameSite settings and separate anti-CSRF checks

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Cookie-based storage with appropriate security attributes limits accidental token propagation through URLs and referring requests. That correction is linked to the fact that URL-carried session identifiers leak through logs, referrers, history, and copied links more readily than properly protected cookies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Server-enforced expiry prevents a copied or unattended token from remaining valid merely because client JavaScript failed to close the page; the required correction concerns session identifier in URL, so this is not the targeted control.

B:

Regeneration limits fixation and stale-token reuse at the point where session authority increases; its security benefit applies principally to session rotation on privilege change, not the defect described; the tested fault instead involves session identifier in URL.

D:

Changing the session token at the privilege transition invalidates any previously planted identifier without requiring the victim to notice tampering; the action is aimed at session fixation; it leaves the central session identifier in URL condition unresolved.

E:

Cookie restrictions reduce ambient authority on cross-site requests, while CSRF tokens still protect state-changing actions and compatibility cases; this is relevant to a separate SameSite cookie behavior scenario, rather than the identified exposure; the tested fault instead involves session identifier in URL.

Question 99

An authorized security review documents this behavior: A poster near reception contains a QR code that opens an imitation workforce login site outside the company's domain. Which mechanism best accounts for the finding?

  1. Spear phishing
  2. Smishing
  3. QR-code phishing
  4. OAuth consent phishing

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

QR phishing hides a destination behind a scannable image, encouraging users to open a fraudulent site without seeing the URL beforehand. The appropriate hardening measure is to display and verify actual destinations before authenticating from QR links, since destination validation and approved app-based entry points reduce credential submission to counterfeit sites reached through physical codes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Spear phishing targets a specific person or group using tailored context rather than sending the same generic bait to a broad population; this would classify another type of evidence, whereas the actual finding shows QR-code phishing.

B:

Smishing delivers phishing content through text messaging; the medium often creates pressure to follow a short link on a mobile device; the relevant mechanism in the observed workflow is QR-code phishing instead.

D:

Consent phishing abuses delegated authorization: a seemingly valid login flow grants an untrusted application permissions without stealing the user's password; the case demonstrates QR-code phishing rather than the alternate mechanism.

Question 100

An authorized security review documents this behavior: Several employees visit a frequently used industry resource and later receive malicious scripts from that otherwise familiar website. Which mechanism best accounts for the finding?

  1. Smishing
  2. Business email compromise
  3. Synthetic-voice impersonation
  4. Watering-hole compromise

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Watering-hole attacks compromise a site commonly visited by a target population, delivering malicious content through a trusted browsing habit. This is why teams should apply browser isolation or hardening and monitor third-party script behavior; client-side controls and update hygiene reduce damage from compromised familiar sites that cannot be safely treated as automatically trustworthy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Smishing delivers phishing content through text messaging; the medium often creates pressure to follow a short link on a mobile device; the relevant mechanism in the observed workflow is watering-hole compromise instead.

B:

Business email compromise manipulates financial or business workflows through impersonation or compromised correspondence rather than necessarily delivering malware; those effects are not the watering-hole compromise pattern evidenced by the assessment.

C:

AI-generated voice impersonation can mimic recognizable speech, so an apparent familiar voice is not sufficient identity proof; the case demonstrates watering-hole compromise rather than the alternate mechanism.

Certified Ethical Hacker v13 (312-50v13) Practice Tests