ECCouncil 312-50v13 (Certified Ethical Hacker v13) Practice Test 9

Question 80

A remediation meeting focuses on the following finding: A company ships retired encrypted notebook SSDs to a disposal provider and wants an unauthorized handler to remain unable to browse files even if the bare drives are connected to another machine. Which proposed action best addresses its root cause?

  1. Guarantee unique nonces per encryption key and rotate affected keys
  2. Protect signing private keys and verify signatures before installation
  3. Enforce full-disk encryption with secure boot and recovery-key controls
  4. Deploy correct certificate chains and validate trusted roots and hostnames

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

At-rest encryption reduces exposure after physical theft, while platform integrity and key escrow govern startup trust and legitimate recovery. It targets the actual failure mode: full-disk encryption protects data at rest against offline media access; it does not stop a logged-in or fully compromised running system from reading unlocked files.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Nonce-generation discipline protects the authentication construction, while key rotation limits exposure after uniqueness guarantees have failed; that safeguard does not directly close the full-disk encryption boundary route highlighted by the test.

B:

Private-key custody preserves publisher identity and signature validation prevents unapproved package modification from appearing legitimate; the proposed improvement would make sense for digital signature verification but not as the main fix here; the tested fault instead involves full-disk encryption boundary.

D:

Proper chain and identity checks prevent arbitrary signed certificates from being treated as proof that a service is the intended endpoint; that change targets PKI trust chain, while the confirmed weakness involves full-disk encryption boundary.

Question 81

The owner asks for a durable safeguard against the issue demonstrated here: The updater downloads an executable along with a cryptographic signature and should reject any package that cannot be verified against an authorized publisher key. What is the best response?

  1. Protect signing private keys and verify signatures before installation
  2. Manage recipient certificates and private keys for encrypted S-MIME messages
  3. Rotate and version keys while retaining controlled historical decryption access
  4. Enforce full-disk encryption with secure boot and recovery-key controls

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Private-key custody preserves publisher identity and signature validation prevents unapproved package modification from appearing legitimate. It targets the actual failure mode: digital signatures use private-key operations for authenticity and integrity verification by corresponding public keys; confidentiality is a separate service.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Verified certificates and sound key custody enable intended recipients to decrypt content while supporting sender authenticity when messages are signed; the required correction concerns digital signature verification, so this is not the targeted control.

C:

Key lifecycle management limits future use of compromised material without inadvertently making existing protected records unrecoverable; its security benefit applies principally to cryptographic key rotation, not the defect described; the tested fault instead involves digital signature verification.

D:

At-rest encryption reduces exposure after physical theft, while platform integrity and key escrow govern startup trust and legitimate recovery; the exposure here is digital signature verification, which calls for another protective mechanism.

Question 82

The owner asks for a durable safeguard against the issue demonstrated here: A public commit history contains a credential removed from the latest branch, while the corresponding cloud token remains valid and can still be used by anyone who saved it. What is the best response?

  1. Strip sensitive metadata during document publishing
  2. Remove exposed content and request index or cache removal
  3. Revoke exposed credentials and scan repository history for leaks
  4. Review certificate issuance and audit publicly exposed hostnames

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Rotating the affected token removes the old credential's authority, while history scanning finds additional disclosures and prevents recurrence. This matters for the observed attack path because Git history and code-search indexing may retain credentials after deletion from the latest branch; a removed line is not proof that a token is secret again.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A publication workflow that sanitizes document properties reduces identity and host naming disclosures while preserving the intended public content; this is relevant to a separate public document metadata scenario, rather than the identified exposure; the tested fault instead involves public repository secret discovery.

B:

Access controls must first stop public retrieval; deindexing then reduces search visibility of previously indexed private content; the tested weakness is public repository secret discovery, not the search engine indexing configuration addressed here.

D:

Monitoring issuance records and inventorying discovered names helps detect unexpected certificates and reduce disclosure through overly broad certificate naming; the proposed improvement would make sense for certificate transparency discovery but not as the main fix here; the tested fault instead involves public repository secret discovery.

Question 83

The approved test uncovered this weakness: A firewall's connection tracking reaches its maximum entry count during an attack, denying fresh sessions even when the protected application has spare resources. Which control would reduce the relevant exposure without relying on obscurity?

  1. Tune state limits and apply connection-rate controls before the firewall
  2. Normalize cache keys and rate-limit expensive uncached operations
  3. Use upstream filtering and volumetric DDoS mitigation
  4. Enforce header completion timeouts and concurrency limits

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Protection must preserve session-table capacity at the device handling flows; scaling application workers alone leaves this bottleneck intact. The technical basis for the recommendation is that state exhaustion targets the intermediary's connection-tracking resources, not necessarily the backend server or its application request queue.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Cache configuration and request controls reduce origin amplification from meaningless parameter variations while preserving valid user queries; it would improve cache-busting request flood, not directly correct the reported state-table exhaustion issue.

C:

Provider-level controls drop unwanted volume before the limited access link becomes saturated, unlike an application-only request throttle; the measure addresses a different trust boundary from the state-table exhaustion finding.

D:

Short header deadlines and bounded connection slots release resources from clients that never submit a complete request; the required correction concerns state-table exhaustion, so this is not the targeted control.

Question 84

The asset owner wants to stop the verified condition recurring: An asset team learns that certificates for untracked hostnames are being issued by an approved certificate authority, potentially exposing forgotten services during routine issuance. What is the most targeted improvement?

  1. Reduce public management exposure and sanitize unnecessary service banners
  2. Revoke exposed credentials and scan repository history for leaks
  3. Review certificate issuance and audit publicly exposed hostnames
  4. Reconcile announced prefixes with authorized asset and provider inventories
  5. Apply publication review guidance to job ads and employee profiles

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Monitoring issuance records and inventorying discovered names helps detect unexpected certificates and reduce disclosure through overly broad certificate naming. The specific weakness being corrected is that certificate transparency logs are public issuance records; hostnames in certificate subject alternative names may reveal externally relevant assets without probing the hosts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Network access rules address the real risk, while suppressing detailed version disclosure reduces effortless targeting based on indexed fingerprints; the exposure here is certificate transparency discovery, which calls for another protective mechanism.

B:

Rotating the affected token removes the old credential's authority, while history scanning finds additional disclosures and prevents recurrence; the action is aimed at public repository secret discovery; it leaves the central certificate transparency discovery condition unresolved.

D:

ASN mapping reveals broad exposure, but network ownership is not permission to scan third-party hosted systems without explicit scope approval; the tested weakness is certificate transparency discovery, not the autonomous system mapping configuration addressed here.

E:

Limiting operational detail in public posts reduces organizational fingerprinting without relying on employees to stop using professional networks; that safeguard does not directly close the certificate transparency discovery route highlighted by the test.

Question 85

The asset owner wants to stop the verified condition recurring: An attacker-controlled website submits a forged address-change action against an already signed-in customer portal using only the browser's existing cookies. What is the most targeted improvement?

  1. Invalidate server-side sessions and associated refresh tokens on logout
  2. Expire inactive sessions server-side and reauthenticate after the threshold
  3. Validate anti-CSRF tokens and request origin for state changes
  4. Mark authentication cookies Secure and require HTTPS throughout the site

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Server-side request authenticity checks reject actions that merely carry automatically attached cookies without proof of authorized user intent. The technical basis for the recommendation is that CSRF exploits ambient browser authentication to induce unwanted actions; the adversary does not necessarily learn or steal the session identifier.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Backend revocation removes authorization from copies of the credential that exist outside the browser being logged out; the proposed improvement would make sense for unrevoked logout token but not as the main fix here; the tested fault instead involves CSRF request forgery.

B:

Server-enforced expiry prevents a copied or unattended token from remaining valid merely because client JavaScript failed to close the page; the specific root cause belongs to CSRF request forgery, beyond this control's intended scope.

D:

Transport restrictions and HTTPS redirect policy help prevent bearer tokens from leaking on non-TLS connections; it would improve secure cookie attribute, not directly correct the reported CSRF request forgery issue.

Question 86

The tester submits the following verified finding: An attacker varies query parameters on expensive pages so a CDN misses the cache and forwards almost every request to the origin. Which technique or condition is involved?

  1. Memcached reflection
  2. Cache-busting request flood
  3. HTTP application flood
  4. Reflection without amplification

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cache busting forces otherwise cacheable requests into unique cache keys, moving traffic and computation from edge cache to vulnerable backend systems. To constrain the corresponding risk, defenders should normalize cache keys and rate-limit expensive uncached operations; cache configuration and request controls reduce origin amplification from meaningless parameter variations while preserving valid user queries.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unauthenticated UDP memcached exposure has enabled high-amplification reflection when forged-source requests trigger responses far larger than the queries; those prerequisites differ from the cache-busting request flood behavior in the record.

C:

Application-layer floods exhaust request handlers, backends, or expensive application operations rather than relying exclusively on raw packet volume; the relevant mechanism in the observed workflow is cache-busting request flood instead.

D:

Reflection redirects response traffic to a spoofed victim by exploiting unauthenticated protocols; amplification additionally requires a favorable response-size ratio; those effects are not the cache-busting request flood pattern evidenced by the assessment.

Question 87

A follow-up review must reduce the risk revealed here: A public API experiences synchronized requests from thousands of hijacked home devices, each producing a rate too low to exceed a simple per-IP threshold. Which defensive measure fits the specific failure mode?

  1. Correlate aggregate behavior and use challenge or reputation signals across clients
  2. Disable public UDP cache access and bind the service privately
  3. Restrict open recursion and deploy source-address validation
  4. Use upstream filtering and volumetric DDoS mitigation

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Global anomaly detection and graduated defenses can identify coordinated demand patterns while minimizing disruption to legitimate high-volume users. This matters for the observed attack path because a botnet coordinates many controlled endpoints, distributing sources so simple single-IP throttles may fail to stop aggregate overload.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Keeping cache protocols on trusted networks stops an externally reachable reflector instead of merely rate-limiting the eventual victim; that safeguard does not directly close the botnet distributed attack route highlighted by the test.

C:

Closing public recursive abuse and filtering spoofed-source traffic reduce reflection opportunities at both the responder and originating network; the proposed improvement would make sense for DNS amplification but not as the main fix here; the tested fault instead involves botnet distributed attack.

D:

Provider-level controls drop unwanted volume before the limited access link becomes saturated, unlike an application-only request throttle; the specific root cause belongs to botnet distributed attack, beyond this control's intended scope.

Question 88

A security change request summarizes the problem as follows: A domain login dashboard shows nearly every employee account receiving one failed guess per hour from the same cloud host, with no account experiencing a rapid burst of attempts. Which remediation is best suited to it?

  1. Monitor startup registry entries and restrict unauthorized changes
  2. Apply phishing-resistant MFA and monitor low-frequency account-wide failures
  3. Audit crontabs and apply least privilege to scheduler files
  4. Use salted memory-hard password hashing and strong password policy

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cross-account failure correlation catches distributed guessing; MFA limits the value of a successfully guessed password even when lockout logic is avoided. The specific weakness being corrected is that password spraying distributes a small candidate set across many usernames to evade per-account lockout thresholds, unlike repeated guessing against one user.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Registry auditing and application allowlisting expose or prevent unexpected logon-time execution from unapproved paths; it would improve registry Run-key persistence, not directly correct the reported password spraying issue.

C:

Trusted task baselines and restricted edit permissions make unauthorized scheduled execution easier to detect and harder to establish; the required correction concerns password spraying, so this is not the targeted control.

D:

Per-account salts defeat precomputed hash tables, while expensive password hashing slows each offline guess after a database leak; its security benefit applies principally to offline password hash attack, not the defect described; the tested fault instead involves password spraying.

Question 89

In a permitted test environment, the analyst records: A man-in-the-middle attempts to force a browser onto plaintext HTTP after the user enters a web address without specifying a scheme. What is the most precise classification?

  1. Secure cookie attribute
  2. CSRF request forgery
  3. TLS stripping
  4. HttpOnly cookie attribute

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

TLS stripping exploits an insecure initial navigation or downgrade path so subsequent requests use plaintext rather than the expected protected connection. The control that addresses this failure path is to deploy HSTS with an appropriate policy and use HTTPS exclusively; HSTS makes compliant browsers insist on TLS for the covered host, limiting downgrade opportunities after the policy is known or preloaded.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The Secure attribute instructs browsers to transmit that cookie only over secure channels, reducing exposure during accidental plaintext requests; those effects are not the TLS stripping pattern evidenced by the assessment.

B:

CSRF exploits ambient browser authentication to induce unwanted actions; the adversary does not necessarily learn or steal the session identifier; the case demonstrates TLS stripping rather than the alternate mechanism.

D:

HttpOnly prevents browser JavaScript from reading a cookie, but the browser can still attach it to legitimate HTTP requests; the test record points specifically to TLS stripping, not this separate mechanism.

Question 90

A defender analyzing an approved exercise sees this pattern: A probe receives a TCP reset after sending an ACK to a port for which no session was established. Which mechanism is most consistent with it?

  1. UDP service discovery
  2. TCP SYN scan
  3. Firewall port-state ambiguity
  4. TCP ACK firewall probing

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

ACK scanning primarily distinguishes filtered from unfiltered paths; it does not establish that an application listener is open. For a production safeguard, operators can interpret ACK responses as filtering evidence, not port availability; a reset indicates the packet reached a TCP stack under the tested conditions, while SYN or application probes are needed to assess a listener.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A UDP scan often cannot distinguish open from filtered ports when no response arrives; ICMP port-unreachable usually indicates the probed port is closed; the case demonstrates TCP ACK firewall probing rather than the alternate mechanism.

B:

A SYN scan infers open ports from SYN-ACK replies and commonly avoids completing the full TCP connection, subject to privilege and firewall behavior; the observed evidence concerns TCP ACK firewall probing instead.

C:

Filtered results describe the scanner's network vantage point; ACLs, stateful inspection, and packet loss can hide a listener without stopping its local process; the test record points specifically to TCP ACK firewall probing, not this separate mechanism.

Certified Ethical Hacker v13 (312-50v13) Practice Tests